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AIRBUS A320 WRITTEN TEST UPDATED ACTUAL EXAM
2025 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH 100%
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The engine generators and APU generator are rated at____ KVA MAXIMUM continuous load - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 90 /100% The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC buses: **- CORRECT ANSWER
** engine generators, external power, APU The battery bus is normally powered by: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor An essential feed switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power source for the AC essential bus from: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> AC bus 1 to AC bus 2 When the aircraft airspeed is above 100 kn which AC bus can be powered by the emergency generator? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> AC essential bus Fasten seatbelt, no smoking, and exit signs come on automatically when the cabin altitude exceeds———-Feet, Regardless of the respective switch position. **- CORRECT ANSWER ** 11, Do not press the IDG DISCONNECT switch for longer than approximately ______ seconds to prevent damage to the disconnect mechanism. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 3 seconds The BAT push button fault indication will illuminate when: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> To answer a or B: A: IDG oil overheat
B: IDG low oil pressure If one generator exceeds 100% of its rated output - CORRECT ANSWER >>> the galley pushbutton FAULT light will illuminate. On the A320, when operating with a single engine driven generator on the ground or a single generator, Inflight: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The main galley buses and in seat, power supplies are shed automatically The RAT & EMER GEN indicator on the EMER ELEC PWR panel illuminates a red FAULT indication when: a. AC BUSES 1 & 2 are not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power. b. the AC ESS BUS is not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power. c. the RAT has been manually deployed using the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYDRAULIC panel and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power. d. the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton on the Emergency Electrical Panel has been pressed and AC1 is no longer powered by GEN 1. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. AC BUSES 1 & 2 are not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power. If avionics smoke is detected when the GEN one line and push button on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is selected off - CORRECT ANSWER >>> General one is completely isolated from the aircraft except for supplying one fuel pump in each wing tank Fire protection
Cargo smoke indicator will illuminate smoke in red when: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Both of the two channels of the detection system detect smoke When the APU fire push button is pushed and released, The: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> APU bleed and cross bleed valves are closed A DISCH light on either the engine or a agent push button indicates: **- CORRECT ANSWER
** The extinguisher bottle has lost pressure The GEN 1 LINE smoke light on the EMER ELEC PWR panel indicates: a. a fire caused by number 1 generator. b. smoke in the avionics ventilation duct. c. smoke in the cargo ventilation system. d. IDG overheat. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Smoke in the avionics ventilation duct Power plant Full authority, digital engine control (FEDEC) controls all of the following functions except: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Warning for exceeding an EGT limit warning after engine start FADEC computes the thrust rating limit based on: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> the measured thrust lever angle. Normally, FADEC is powered by - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A dedicated alternator independent of the aircraft electrical system
During an automatic start FADEC will automatically abort the start in case of: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> hot start, no ignition, stalled start. FADEC has three idle modes, including: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> •Modulated Idle •Approach Idle •Reverse Idle Automatic and manual starts are identical to all respect, except pilot action is required to manually open the start valve by selecting the engine man start push button on - CORRECT ANSWER >>> False Ignition system - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Consist of two independent circuits designated A and B, which are alternated by FADEC at each engine auto start Thrust reverse deployment requires all of the following except: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. at least one SEC detects deployment of the ground spoilers after touchdown. Thrust levers have - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 5 detents - TOGA, FLX/MCT, CLimb, IDLE, MAX REVerse Continuous ignition is provided automatically when the engine mode selector is in the norm position in all of the following except: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. Leading edge slats are retracted. Which statement about the APU is true? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. The APU has a dedicated fuel pump that supplies fuel from the left fuel manifold in the event that tank boost pumps are not operating. Navigation & instruments
Three possible modes of FMGC operation are - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Independent
- Single
- Dual Each FMGC uses, which input for position determination - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A hybrid IRS/GPS position The two basic modes of flight guidance are - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Managed Selected The manage mode of flight guidance is used for - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Long-term lateral, vertical, speed profiles, as determined by the FMGS Both auto pilots may be engaged and active in any phase of flight **- CORRECT ANSWER
** false All navigates are normally autotune by a(n): - CORRECT ANSWER >>> FMGC VOR data can be displayed on: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Both A & B (both NDs / the DDRMI) All of the following are used for FMGS radio position computation except - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. VOR/VOR Altitude alerting is automatically inhibited Inflight when - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The slats are extended with the landing gear selected down Approach after glideslope captured. Either a or C.
Radio height is displayed on the PFD when - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. below 2500' Arm guidance modes are displayed on line 2 of the flight mode annunciator in which colors - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Blue or magenta Engage guidance modes are displayed line one of the flight mode annunciator in which colors? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Green Information from ILS receiver number one is displayed on - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Captains, PFD and First officers ND The ON BAT light on the ADIRS CDU illuminates: a. only when al IRUs are on battery power. b. when an IRU fault is detected. c. when one or more ADIRUs are supplied by airplane battery only. d. when ADIRU1 has been replaced by ADIRU3 using EIS switching. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> c. when one or more ADIRUs are supplied by airplane battery only. In the event of a failure of the AIR DATA function of ADIRU 1 or 2, the affected displays can be manually replaced by ADR 3 with the EIS: a. ECAM/ND transfer selector. b. AIR DATA selector. c. ATT HDG selector. d. EIS DMC selector. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> b. AIR DATA selector.
Whenever flaps are extended, the ailerons: a. are electrically centered. b. are controlled by the damping actuator which becomes active. c. droop 5 degrees. d. remain at the existing deflection unless forced down by aerodynamic forces. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> c. droop 5 degrees. If electrical power to the SEC fails: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The effected spoilers automatically retract If angle of attack protection is active or if flaps are in config full - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. speed brake extension is inhibited. Should the active elevator actuator fail a elevator control is **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Maintained by the other actuator, which becomes active. To control surfaces that have mechanical back up are: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The horizontal stabilizer and rudder Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to 0° after landing - CORRECT ANSWER >>> True Should both FAC's fail, maximum Rutter deflection can be obtained after the——-are extended.
- CORRECT ANSWER >>> Slats Moving the RUD TRIM rotary switch with the autopilot engaged: a. will trip the autopilot off if set to more that 10°.
b. has no effect on the rudder. c. electronically resets the rudder actuator to zero trim. d. will only trim up to the high-speed deflection limits. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> b. has no effect on the rudder. All of the following will activate the wingtip brakes except: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Thermal runaway While on the ground in Normal Law, a side stick roll deflection: a. has a direct proportional relationship between side stick deflection and deflection of the flight controls. b. is directly proportional to the load factor imposed on the aircraft, regardless of airspeed. c. is interpreted as a roll rate request and positions ailerons and spoilers 2 through 5 to maintain a constant bank angle. d. will always result in the same roll rate response. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. has a direct proportional relationship between side stick deflection and deflection of the flight controls. Inflight, in normal law and with bank angle less than 33°, pitch trim is: **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Automatic with or without the auto pilot engaged With auto pilot, engaged, manual movement of the pitch, trim wheel: **- CORRECT ANSWER ** Will disconnect the auto pilot, but not the ELAC In normal law, elevator control changes from normal mode to alpha protection mode when the angle of attack is greater than - CORRECT ANSWER >>> alpha prot When in alternate law, low speeds stability (nose down command) cannot be overridden by the side stick - CORRECT ANSWER >>> False
On the A320 normal fuel management, Inflight is to use fuel from **- CORRECT ANSWER
** The sinner tank first, then the wing takes What indication would you see if the center tank has more than 550 pounds of fuel and the left or right wing tanks has less than 11,000 pounds? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> FAULT in the MODE SEL push button The engine, low pressure fuel valves are controlled by - CORRECT ANSWER >>> either A or B (the engine MASTER switch / the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton) Once opened, the fuel transfer valves on the A320 are closed automatically - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. at the next refueling operation. The fuel crossfeed valve is controlled by—— motors - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 2 Pneumatic air is supplied by (IP) intermediate-pressure or (HP) high pressure engine bleeds, or both. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> True Inflight, if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The engine speed will increase automatically The HP bleed valve will close automatically in the event of low upstream pressure, excessive upstream pressure, or when the bleed air valve is closed electrically. a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Not true for all - CORRECT ANSWER >>> True
The cross bleed valve has two electric motors, one for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode - CORRECT ANSWER >>> True The APU bleed air valve is: a. mechanically controlled and pneumatically operated. b. electrically operated and pneumatically controlled. c. electrically controlled and pneumatically operated. d. hydraulically operated and electrically controlled. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> c. electrically controlled and pneumatically operated. Leak detection system, senses and overheat using a single loop in **- CORRECT ANSWER
** The pylons and APU The amber APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates from an APU: a. overheat. b. overpressure. c. bleed leak. d. shutdown. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> c. bleed leak. Pneumatics External air may be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure **- CORRECT ANSWER ** False
Should both channels fail in the zone controller: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Pack 2 temperature will be the average of the FWD CABIN and AFT CABIN zone selectors. The lab/galley extract fan operates: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Continuously when electrical power is available If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will be——-regardless of the pack flow selector position - CORRECT ANSWER >>> HI The amber fault light in the HOT AIR pushbutton means - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A duct overheat has been detected What happens to the outflow valve when the ram air switch is selected on? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. The outflow valve opens if Dp (differential pressure) is less than 1 psi. When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches are in OVRD; air from the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> True How many motors drive the outflow valve - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 3 During normal operations, two cabin, automatic, pressure, controllers, alternate: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> automatically after landing or if the operating controller fails. If the lab/galley fan system fails - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Cabin temperature defaults to a predetermined value Manual pressurization control is selected:
a. automatically if both automatic controllers fail. b. automatically in the alternating sequence after each landing. c. after selecting DITCHING pushbutton ON. d. after selecting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> d. after selecting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN. On the cargo heat control panel, selecting the AFT ISOL VALVE to OFF: a. closes the inlet and outlet isolation valves and the trim air valve and steps the extraction fan. b. closes the pressure regulating valve and resets the fault circuit. c. if smoke is detected, overrides control of the aft isolation valve by the fire protection system to open halfway to vent smoke overboard. d. has no evict if smoke has not been detected. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a. closes the inlet and outlet isolation valves and the trim air valve and stops the extraction fan. Hydraulics In the event of a lot of pressure in the green hydraulic system, fluid can be transferred from the yellow hydraulic system - CORRECT ANSWER >>> False Which hydraulic system have engine driven pumps - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Green and yellow Which hydraulic system has electric pumps - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Yellow and blue The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides hydraulic power to the—— system **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Blue
The PTU FAULT light illuminates when the: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> green or yellow system reservoir has low air pressure. Normally, landing gear operation, and monitoring is the primary responsibility of: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> the LGCIUs which alternate primary/backup roles after each gear cycle. The——— hydraulic system provides power for gear extension and retraction - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Green A safety valve shut off the hydraulic power to the landing gear when the airspeed is - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Greater than 260 kts Which of the following statements about the alternate brake accumulator is true - CORRECT ANSWER >>> When landing on alternate brakes powered by accumulator pressure only, anti- skid is never available. Above 72 kts, auto breaking is initiated by: - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Ground spoiler extension The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes except - CORRECT ANSWER >>> autobrake is inoperative. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, the accumulator supplies:
- CORRECT ANSWER >>> at least seven full brake applications as indicated by the top of the green band (1,000 psi) on the BRAKES sector of the triple indicator. The steering killers can steer the nose wheel up to—-in each direction. **- CORRECT ANSWER
** + / - 75°
When using the Rutter pedals for the nose wire steering, the steering angle, starts to reduce above—-Grounded and progressively reduces 0° at——— - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 40kts , 130kts The green DECEL light in each AUTO/BRK switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration—-of the selective rate. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 80% The RED ARROW on the landing gear, selector, lever illuminates when: **- CORRECT ANSWER
** the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.
Extending the landing gear with the emergency gear extension hand crank requires three clockwise turns of the the handle, which does all the following except: **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Automatically cycles to the standby LGCIU The lights on the landing gear indicator panel will continue to operate, even if both LGCIU 1 is supplied with electrical power. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> True Ice & rain protection Inflight, The ———-on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air **- CORRECT ANSWER ** Three outboard slats When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves - CORRECT ANSWER >>> close automatically When either engine anti-ice valve is open - CORRECT ANSWER >>> maximum N1 is reduced and idle N1 is increased.
