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Air Methods Critical Care exam Questions with verified correct Answers 2025/2026, Exams of Nursing

What is the most reliable method of confirming and montioring correct placement of an ET tube? Continuous waveform capnography The upper airway consists of... Nose, Mouth, Jaw, Oral Cavity, Pharynx, and Larynx No gas exchange occurs here , it's called . Nose to terminal bronchioles, anatomical dead space. (2ml/kg of inspired tidal volume) They conduct airflow towards gas exchange units. Crycothyroid membrane between thyroid and cricoid, avascular structure that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilage. Site of CRiCOTHYROTOMY- an emergency opening of the airway. A PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg indicates:

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Air Methods Critical Care exam Questions with verified
correct Answers 2025/2026
What is the most reliable method of confirming and montioring correct placement of an
ET tube?
Continuous waveform capnography
The upper airway consists of...
Nose, Mouth, Jaw, Oral Cavity, Pharynx, and Larynx
No gas exchange occurs here , it's called .
Nose to terminal bronchioles, anatomical dead space. (2ml/kg of inspired tidal volume)
They conduct airflow towards gas exchange units.
Crycothyroid membrane
between thyroid and cricoid, avascular structure that connects the thyroid and cricoid
cartilage. Site of CRiCOTHYROTOMY- an emergency opening of the airway.
A PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg indicates:
A. Metabolic acidosis.
B. Metabolic alkalosis.
C. Respiratory acidosis.
D. Respiratory alkalosis.
C. Respiratory acidosis
PaCO2 normal range
35-45 mm Hg Less than 35 likely means hyperventilation
Tracheal deviation AWAY from the affected side, decreased breath sounds, and
hyperresonance... What's happening?
Tension pneumothorax
In a tension pneumothorax tracheal deviation goes in what direction?
AWAY from affected side.
Normal mean pulmonary artery pressure
10-20 mmHg
Pulmonary hypertension is a mean PA pressure greater than...
(PAm) greater than 20
Primary pulmonary hypertension
Idiopathic genetic disorder caused by abnormal structure of the pulmonary blood
vessels
Name three causes of secondary pulmonary hypertension..
1.
Passive PH- the result of back pressure. Mitral Stenosis, LV systolic failure.
2.
Active PH- Constriction of the pulmonary circuit Increased volume in pulmonary
circuit (i.e. congenital heart disease)
3.
Obstruction as in Chronic recurrent PE
TNP of the Pregnant patient
Resuscitation priorities are the same. The best way to take care of the baby is to take
care of mama
Mechanisms of injury and biomechanics the most common cause of maternal injury is...
Blunt trauma caused by MVC. Second is BT caused by falls, 3rd is violence
fetal distress is an early sign of maternal distress... Why?
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Download Air Methods Critical Care exam Questions with verified correct Answers 2025/2026 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Air Methods Critical Care exam Questions with verified

correct Answers 2025/

What is the most reliable method of confirming and montioring correct placement of an

ET tube?

Continuous waveform capnography

The upper airway consists of...

Nose, Mouth, Jaw, Oral Cavity, Pharynx, and Larynx

No gas exchange occurs here , it's called.

Nose to terminal bronchioles, anatomical dead space. (2ml/kg of inspired tidal volume)

They conduct airflow towards gas exchange units.

Crycothyroid membrane

between thyroid and cricoid, avascular structure that connects the thyroid and cricoid

cartilage. Site of CRiCOTHYROTOMY- an emergency opening of the airway.

A PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg indicates:

A. Metabolic acidosis.

B. Metabolic alkalosis.

C. Respiratory acidosis.

D. Respiratory alkalosis.

C. Respiratory acidosis

PaCO2 normal range

35 - 45 mm Hg Less than 35 likely means hyperventilation

Tracheal deviation AWAY from the affected side, decreased breath sounds, and

hyperresonance... What's happening?

Tension pneumothorax

In a tension pneumothorax tracheal deviation goes in what direction?

AWAY from affected side.

Normal mean pulmonary artery pressure

10 - 20 mmHg

Pulmonary hypertension is a mean PA pressure greater than...

(PAm) greater than 20

Primary pulmonary hypertension

Idiopathic genetic disorder caused by abnormal structure of the pulmonary blood

vessels

Name three causes of secondary pulmonary hypertension..

  1. Passive PH- the result of back pressure. Mitral Stenosis, LV systolic failure.
  2. Active PH- Constriction of the pulmonary circuit Increased volume in pulmonary

circuit (i.e. congenital heart disease)

  1. Obstruction as in Chronic recurrent PE

TNP of the Pregnant patient

Resuscitation priorities are the same. The best way to take care of the baby is to take

care of mama

Mechanisms of injury and biomechanics the most common cause of maternal injury is...

Blunt trauma caused by MVC. Second is BT caused by falls, 3rd is violence

fetal distress is an early sign of maternal distress... Why?

Catecholamine mediated vasoconstriction resulting from blood loss shunts blood away

from the fetus to the mom.

Fetal hypo perfusion is evidenced by....

Fetal tachycardia (140 to 160+) and fetal bradycardia

The FRC in a pregnant patient is....

Reduced by the gravid uterus lifting the diaphragm.

chest tube placement in a pregnant patient is 1 - 2 spaces higher

Because of the lifted diaphragm

What is the cause of physiological anemia in pregnant patients?

Hemodilitional anemia occurs. Plasma volume increases 30 - 50%.

Preterm Labor (PTL)

abruptio placentae

premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

On a pregnant patient...

Chest compressions must be higher on the sternum.

Any preg patient 20 weeks pregnant or more with a uterus above the umbilicus should

have the uterus left laterally displaced during compressions to avoid aortocaval

compression. A 15 degree tilt of the long board or lateral displacement.

What is the Maternal Fetal Triage Index?

A valid reliable 5 level triage tool that may assist in the triage of obstetric trauma

patients.

Displacing the uterus off the vena cava can improve CO by

approximately 30%!

Continuous fetal monitoring is recommended...

for all pregnant patients 20 or more weeks gestation... or (uterus above belly button).

Fundal height measurement

equals the approximate gestational age in weeks, until week 32.

Belly button is 20 weeks

Height of last rib is 26 weeks

costal margin is 36 weeks

Any fundal height indicating 23 or more weeks...

at the last rib and above is consistent with a viable fetus.

What type of blood should a pregnant trauma patient receive?

O-NEG baybay.

Initiate cardiotocography in any mother

20 or more weeks gestation, must be monitored for at least 6 hours.

What is the serum lab test that detects fetal red cells in the maternal circulation?

Kleinhauer Bette KB serum test. This lab is used to determine if hemorrhage of fetal

blood through the placenta and into maternal circulation. KB test is an important

detector of abruptio placentae, preterm labor and need to administer Rh negative

globulin when mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive.

Continue fetal monitoring for a minimum of ------hours for any viable pregnancy and up to

hours if there is abdominal trauma

Sonography has for diagnosis placental abruption,

POOR. ... they miss 50-80% of abruptions.

AV block in which occasional electrical impulses from the SA node fail to be conducted

to the ventricles.

PR interval progressively lengthens greater than 120 - 200ms + dropped beats.

Maternal cardiopulmonary arrest...If any moribund patient is 24 weeks or more

perimortem c section must be considered. AHA recommends c section initiation within...

4 minutes... delivery with in 5 minutes of any unsuccessful maternal resuscitative

attempts.

Second Degree Heart Block (Mobitz II)

= Damage AT av node - moderate

  • PR-interval is normal; QRS complexes are dropped erratically
  • ALL must have a pacemaker in the next 72 hrs.

STEMI Nitro gtt

5 - 10 mcg per minute

Titrate by 10 mcg

max dose 300 mcg per minute

How do you mix epi?

Mix 1 mg in 1 L NS or D5W or LR for a concentration of 1 mcg/ ml

What's the epi dose for hypotension

s/p arrest?

0.1 - 0.5 mcg/kg/min

What is the epi dose for anaphylaxis?

Pediatric Epinephrine dose

PALS 2020 update

AHA 2020 BASIC BP

Diastolic BP of at least 25mmhg in infants

and at least 35 mmhm in children

correlates with better outcomes.

PALS Brady with a pulse

Assess airway, breathing, mental status

Most common cause is hypoxia! could also be hypothermia and or medications.

s/s of shock? AMS? hypotensive?

Start CPR if any of these

Always start CPR if HR < 60 bpm

iv access

Give Epi 0.01 mg/kg (0.1ml of 0.1mg/ml solution)

Repeat Q 3-5 minutes

Initial management of pediatric respiratory distress or Failure A

  1. A-ABC. Support open airway: Comfort or Head tilt chin lift. Jaw thrust.

Clear airway if indicated. (suction nose or mouth if indicated)

Consider OPA or NPA.

IDENTIFY type and Severity of respiratory problems

Initial management of pediatric respiratory distress or Failure B

  1. B-Monitor Spo2 withPulse ox. Provide high concentration O2, via non rebreather
  • Administer inhaled meds: Albuterol or Epi. as needed
  • Assist ventilation with child ambu + o2 if needed. Prepare for intubation if needed.

Initial management of pediatric respiratory distress or Failure C

3.C-Monitor heart rate, rhythm and BP. Establish IV/IO access. and fluids/ meds as

needed. Evaluate Identify Intervene

What is an upper airway obstruction?

Interruption in airflow through nose, mouth, pharynx, or larynx. The large always outside

the thorax.

PALS What causes upper airway obstruction?

Airway Swelling

(anaphylactoid rx) ,Infection r/t croup

Aspirated foreign body

enlarged tonsils or adenoids

Decreased level of consciousness GCS of 8?

Infants and small children are especially vulnerable to

Upper airway obstruction.

Infants are obligate nose breathers.

PALS Management of upper airway obstruction

position of comfort, or jaw thrust chin lift

100% FIO2 via non rebreather

  • Carefully weigh decision to suction. Don't do it if it's croup of anaphylaxis.
  • give nebulizer epinephrine particularly if swelling is beyond the tongue.
  • Give inhaled or IV cortical steroids
  • OPA for AMS and NPA for ams with a gag.
  • consider cpap.
  • Only experienced intubation should be considered

ensure pt can be ventilated prior to paralytic

  • prepare for difficult airway (needle cricothyroidotomy)

In infants and children, retraction of the skin, muscles, and other tissues around the

clavicle and between the ribs indicates:

A.

shallow breathing.

B.

labored breathing.

C.

see-saw breathing.

D.

normal breathing.

PALS Management of upper airway obstruction caused by croup.

PALS Management of Anaphylaxis

In addition to ABC....

  • Administer IM epic by auto injector or regular syringe every 10 to 15 minutes as

needed. Repeat doses may be needed.

  • Treat bronchospasm with albuterol MDI or Nebulizer
  • Give continuous nebulizer treatment if needed.
  • **For severe respiratory distress anticipate further airway swelling and prepare for

endotracheal intubation

PALS Management of anaphylaxis continues

  • Hypertension
  • Tachycardia

In adults it's bradycardia

Hyperventilate the patient to prevent further increases in ICP

  • hypertonic saline, Osmotic agents (dose?)
  • Treat pain and agitation aggressively once airway is established.
  • Avoid hyperthermia

PALS management of respiratory distress due to poisoning

  • Support airway
  • give antidote
  • call poison control

Ventilation Management

a Tidal volume is 5 - 7mL/Kg aprox. 500ml for an adult

hemodynamic changes in Cardiogenic shock

SBP (Down)

SVR (UP)

CVP (UP)

CO (Down)

PAP (UP)

Wedge (UP)

PVR (UP)

Coags (PT/INR/PTT)

PT 11-14s

PTT (20- 40 sec) heparin

INR (0.9-1.2) Coumadin

Platelets : 150-450k

Blood Gas

pH: 7.35-7.

PaCO2: 35 - 45

PaO2: 80 - 100

HCO3: 22 - 26

chemistry panels (renal, hepatic, comprehensive, metabolic)

Na+ 135- 145

Cl- 95 - 105

K+ 3.5-4.

Cr 0.6-1.

Glucose 70 - 100

Magnesium 1.7-2.

Magnesium

K+ (potassium)

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

Na+

135 - 145 mEq/L

Glucose

70 - 110 mg/dL

Cr (Creatinine)

0.6-1.3 mg/dL

Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)

the force opposing the movement of blood within the blood vessels

[(MAP-CVP) / CO] x

Normal: 750 - 1600 dynes/sec

SVR Formula & Normal

(MAP - CVP / ) x 80

Normal 750 - 1600 dynes/sec

hemodynamic changes in Hypovolemic hemorrhagic shock

HR Increased

SBP Decreased

SVR Increased

CVP Decreased

Hemodynamics of septic shock

- CO/CI; INCREASED

  • RAP/PAP/PAOP; decreased
  • SVR; decreased

- SVO2; INCREASED

Cl (Cloride)

Acute Respiratory Failure blood gases

Calcium

Ca2+ 8 - 10

Hemoglobin (male and female)

Male: 14-18 g/dL

Female: 12 - 16 g/dL

Hemotocrit

percentage of RBC in a volume of blood

Males 45-52%

Females 37-48%

Trick: it's the HGb x 3

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

3 - 15 with 15=good and 3=bad

Brain injury GCS:

Minor 13 - 15

Moderate 9 - 12 Asses ability to protect airway

Severe 3- 8

volume control ACVC

Set Tidal volume and rate, peep, FIO2. Guaranties a set minute ventilation

assist control ventilation

  • Has a preset rate and preset tidal volume
  • patient CAN breathe on own, uses own breaths
  • when patient initiates own breath, vent will give preset tidal volume
  • rate depends on patient's ABG's (CO2 level) the higher the CO2, the higher the rate

The apex of the heart- should be a positive deflection.

It's a positive lead that looks at the apex of the heart.

P wave: atrial depolarization

Left bundle branch...

Is what actually depolarizes the intraventricular septum

In lead II, depolarization of the septum ( LBB) is what part of the ekg?

The negative deflection known as the Q wave! The Q wave is indicative of

intraventricular Septal depolarization

The R the wave is indicative of

Ventricular depolarization

SaO

95 - 100% percent of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen.

Adult Acls Dopamine infusion dose

2 - 10 mcg/ kg / min

Adult ACLS Epi infusion dose

2 - 10 mcg/kg/min

Adult ACLS Bradycardia Atropine dose

1st dose: 0.5 mg bolus

Repeat q 3 - 5 minutes

Max dose 3mg

Adult ACLS Cardiac Arrest Amio dose:

1st: 300mg bolus

2nd: 150mg

Adult ACLS how many compressions?

At least 100 compressions a minute

Vasopressin push dose & infusion dose

1 dose of 40 units

0.02-0.04 units per minute

Thrombocytopenia

Platelet count of less than < 150,000 uL

Trauma triad of death

  • Hypothermia: warm room, warm blanket, warmed fluid
  • Coagulapathy
  • Metabolic acidosis

DIC Coag Lab values

D-Dimer 1-5 mcg/ml

Fibrinogen < 100 mg/dL (Normal 200 - 400 mg/dL)

Normal PR interval

0.12-0.20 seconds

Normal QRS duration

0.04-0.12 seconds

WBC

Normal is 5 - 10K mm

A normal Q-T interval is.

0.31-0.41 sec when heart rate is 70 beats/min

Has to be corrected for HR

Shockable rhythms

V fib

V tach (pulseless)

Junctional Escape Rhythm

a rhythm that occurs when the SA node fails to initiate the electrical activity and one of

the backup pacemaker sites takes over

Rate 40 - 60 (61- 100 accelerated)

No p wave

ventricular fibrillation

Disorganized, ineffective twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a

state of cardiac arrest.

No pulse. SHOCK Biphasic 200J Mono 360J

monomorphic ventricular tachycardia

QRS complexes that are the same shape, size, and direction.

3rd degree AV block

P wave independent of QRS

Idioventricular Rhythm (IVR)

Rate: 20 - 40

regular

QRS wide and bizarre in shape

escape or usurpation

septic shock and Central VENOUS ScVO2 oxygen extraction

LOW < 65% is bad.

Drawn from a CVC. Surrogate to Svo2.

Normal oxygen extraction is 25 - 30% corresponding to a ScvO2 >65%

< 65% = Impaired tissue oxygenation

80% = High PaO2; or suspect: — Cytotoxic dysoxia (e.g. cyanide poisoning,

mitochrondial disease, severe sepsis) — Microcirculatory shunting (e.g. severe sepsis,

liver failure, hyperthyroidism) — Left to right shunts

Adult Dopamine IV Infusion Dose

  • Correct hypovolemia first
  • 5 - 20 mcg/ kg / min
  • don't use for cardiogenic shock with CHF
  • Don't mix with Bicarb

Adult Norepinephrine (levophed) Infusion Dose

0.1- 2 mcg /kg/ min

Adult Lidocaine

VF/VT

1.5mg/kg IVP

Repeat 3 - 5 min

Max 3mg/kg (2 doses)

GTT: 20 to 50 mcg /kg/minute.

1 to 4 mg /minute

Adult Vassopressin Gtt dose

from 0.01 to 0.05 units/min

Most common cause of PEA-

hypovolemia and Hypoxia

Arrest r/t Massive Saddle PE

Give Fibrinolytics

Arrest r/t Cardiac tamponade...

Give volume

  • decompress

tension pneumothorax

TX with needle decompression and chest tube insertion

Fibrinolytics

Alteplase, reteplase and tenecteplase

Administer to patients with STEMI > 2 mm in leads V2 and V

CI (Absolute)

  • Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis
  • Any prior intracranial hemorrhage
  • Recent intracranial or intraspina surgery or trauma (last 3 months)
  • Intracranial neoplasm, arteriovenous malformation, or aneurysm
  • Arotic dissection
  • Sever uncontrolled hypertension
  • Ischemic stroke within past 3 months, except acute ischemic stroke within 4.5 hrs.

Relative

  • Pregnancy
  • Active peptic ulcer
  • Current use of anticoagulant

SE

  • Bleeding, hypotension, intracranial hemorrhage, fever

NOTE

  • Door-to-needle time should be < 30 mins (for fibrinolytcis)

ACS Heparin

4000 unit bolus (0.8 ml

CI: GI bleeds, SAH, Already taking coumadin, plavix, other d

ACS Metoprolol (Lopressor)

Indications: MI, Tachy, hypertensive

Dose : 5mg slow IV push at 5 minute intervals for a max of 15 mg. long acting,

CI: hypotensive, brady

A lactate level of > is a poor prognostic sign

Lactate > 4

Definition of sepsis, severe sepsis and septic shock

Sepsis: SIRS + Infection

Septic Shock: Severe Sepsis + SBP <90, MAP < 65, or Lactate > 4 after Fluids.

(30ml/kg)

SIRS Criteria (systemic inflammatory response syndrome)

= 2 of the following:

38.3 (100.9F) or < 36 (96.8F)

Heart Rate > 90 bpm

  • RR > 20 or PaCO2 < 32 (hyperventilating)

(normal 35-45)

  • WBC > 12,000 or < 4,

or >10% bands

Naloxone (Narcan)

opiate antagonist, reverses opioid induced resiratory depression

Dose

A.C.L.S. Epinephrine Dosing and indications

Arrest: 1 mg q 3 - 5 minutes 10 mL or 0.1 mg/ml

Higher dose: 0.2 mg/Kg for CCB/BB OD

GTT: 0.1-0.5 mcg/kg/min

Anaphylaxis: 5 - 15 mcg/kg/min

Profound Brady or Hypotension 2 - 10 mcg/Min

ACLS Atropine dose?

Brady with a pulse:

1 mg! q 3- 5 minutes

max dose: 3 mg 0.04mg/kg (3mg)

may not be effective for mobitz 2 or 3rd degree HB

spinal shock

complete but temporary loss of motor, sensory, reflex, and autonomic function

immediately after injury- lasts less than 48hrs- weeks

  • flaciddity
  • Loss of reflexes
  • watch for hypo kale Mia

Keep CPP > 60

What are the Stroke care 1 hour goals?

1. NIHSS

  1. Ct w/o contrast

Door to needle time for ischemic embolic

What three things cause cerebral vasoconstriction?

Hypertension

Hypocarbia

Alkalosis

Which things cause cerebral vasodilation?

Hypotension

Hypercarbia

Acidosis

What MAP range is necessary for cerebral auto regulation to be maintained?

50 - 150 mm Hg

What happens to cerebral blood flow when the patient is hypoxic? ( pao2 less than 50)?

Cerebral vasodilation occurs.

One Evidence of loss of cerebral auto regulation is

Cushings's response:

Widening pulse pressure

Reflex bradycardia

Decreased respiratory efforts

maintain a CPP of to -

to optimize cerebral blood flow

Greater than 65 Usually 70- 90

Normal 60- 100

Acceptable 50 - 70 mm Hg

How do you calculate MAP?

Systolic BP + (2 x DBP) / 3

Which leads look at the inferior surface of the heart? ie RV infarction inferior MI?

II III & aVF

What does an inferior MI look like on EKG?

What are some physical exams you can perform to assess systemic vascular

resistance?

pulse pressure variation

What are Kinematics and why do we care?

Kinematics and the physics of energy transfer

What is dynamic compliance?

Dynamic compliance is static compliance plus airway resistance. bronchospasm would

affect dynamic compliance because it increases airway resistance.Differentiate between

the factors that affect airway resistance and factors that affect expansion of the alveoli,

lung, or chest wall. Dynamic compliance is affected by airway resistance factors.

Commotio cordis is a phenomenon in which:

ventricular fibrillation is induced following blunt trauma to the chest during the heart's

repolarization period.

Ashman phenomenon

Aberrant conduction of a supraventricular beat commonly seen in patients with atrial

fibrillation; wide SV beat after a QRS complex that is preceded by a long pause.

Which of the following may be useful in systolic dysfunction but may be detrimental in

diastolic dysfunction?

A.

β-blockers

B.

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

C.

Aldosterone antagonists

D.

Vasodilators

Vasodilators are used for preload and afterload reduction in systolic dysfunction but

may detrimentally decrease diastolic filling in diastolic dysfunction.

A holistic murmur at the left sternal border means the

the tricuspid valve is most likely affected.

a patient with valve vegetation from IV venous drug use is most likely to have vegetation

on what valve? resulting in risk of which condition...

the Tricuspid valve... Pulmonary emboli

the valve most likely affected in this patient is the tricuspid valve and that the blood (and

any emboli) will go to the pulmonary artery and the lungs. E

Which of the following is a cause of diastolic dysfunction?

A.

Cardiac tamponade

B.

Myocardial infarction

C.

Hypertension

D.

Aortic stenosis

Diastolic dysfunction is an inability of the heart to fill adequately. Tamponade

compresses the chambers so that filling is impaired. If filling is impaired, cardiac output

is diminished.

Which single lead is the most valuable for the diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia?

A.II

B.V

C.V

D.III

Because ventricular tachycardia is most likely to originate in the left ventricle, lead V1,

which is normally predominantly negative, would be predominantly positive in ventricular

tachycardia.

Leads II and III, both inferior leads, are too similar for either to be correct. Because the

A lateral Wall MI will be seen as St elevations in which leads, and stems from a

blockage in which coronary arteries?

  1. High Lateral: lead 1 and AVL

V5 and V6 are low lateral wall... ischemia from the circumflex artery.

In Acute coronary Syndromes unstable angina is characterized by......

  • Ischemic Symptoms suggestive of ACS
  • No Troponin elevation
  • with or without ECG changes

NSTEMI characteristics

universal recipient blood type is...

AB positive

universal donor blood type

O negative

Rh disease (erythroblastosis fetalis)

RhoGAM shot

given to mother soon after the first delivery, miscarriage, or abortion so that antibody

binds to fetal RBC and removed it from the body before the mother makes Rh antibody

What type of blood is given to women of childbearing age?

Platelets indications

volume in the bag is about 150 mls, to assist with coagulation of blood. idications:

bleeding, hemophelia, thrombocytopenia, platelets dysfunction

FFP (fresh frozen plasma) 150 - 160ml

indications: pts who need coagulation factors - liver failure, DIC, Burns, massive RBC

transfusion

Product of choice for pts with multiple deficiencies

Cryoprecipitate 50ml

  • Clients with hemophilia (deficiency of clotting factor), are given cryoprecipitate to

replace the deficient factor as a prophylactic measure before any invasive procedure,

surgery or when actively bleeding.

  • Cryoprecipitate provides therapeutic amounts of Facto 8, Factor 13, von Willebrand

factor and fibrinogen. These concentrates are made with recombinant DNA technology

and are the treatment of choice with hemophilic A and von Willebrands disease.

Indications for Fresh Frozen Plasma

Burns,