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Air Law and ATC Procedures - Level 3
With 200 Questions
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of: - ✔ ✔ 2 NM from touchdown
Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of: - ✔ ✔ WGS-
The visual signal for indicating a state of distress in the air is: - ✔ ✔ A succession of red pyrotechnics
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to " resume own navigation". This phrase means that: - ✔ ✔ You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty. - ✔ ✔ For a period to be established by that State
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: - ✔ ✔ the OCH
In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to: - ✔ ✔ 1 minute 30 seconds
Fixed distance markings are placed: - ✔ ✔ 300m from the runway threshold
Airfield reference code E is used for aircraft with a maximum wingspan of: - ✔ ✔ 52 meters or more, but less than 65 meters
Where 2 aircraft are established on adjacent parallel ILS localisers, what is the minimum radar separation permitted under mode 2 operations? - ✔ ✔ 2 NM
For a precision cat II/III approach lighting system, what colour are the side row barrettes of the supplemental approach lighting in the inner segment? - ✔ ✔ Red
While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degrees relative bearing. In that case you should see his: - ✔ ✔ green navigation light
The " estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: - ✔ ✔ required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport
Do all runways require centreline markings? - ✔ ✔ No, only paved runways
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: - ✔ ✔ 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft)
The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is: - ✔ ✔ the take-off distance available less the clearway
aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: - ✔ ✔ ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft: - ✔ ✔ are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements unless at a height that will permit: - ✔ ✔ In the event of an emergency a landing to be made safely
In a standard holding pattern turns are made: - ✔ ✔ to the right
Runway centre line lights shall be fixed lights showing variable... from the threshold to the point 900m from the runway end, alternate... and variable... from 900m to 300m from runway end, and... from 300m to the runway end. - ✔ ✔ white, red and white, red
If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall: - ✔ ✔ proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the estimated time of arrival or the expected approach time, whichever is later
An MSA Provides: - ✔ ✔ 300m obstacle clearance within 46km of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome
Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft on the ground, a steady red light means: - ✔ ✔ Stop
From sunset to sunrise an aircraft in flight shall display: - ✔ ✔ Anti collision lights intended to attract attention of other aircraft, and navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer. No other lights shall be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for the navigation lights
What is the steepest descent path permitted for a non precision approach? - ✔ ✔ 6.50%
When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select... on the transponder. - ✔ ✔ Mode C 7600
In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: - ✔ ✔ 1 minute
What defines a danger area? - ✔ ✔ Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist
Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima? - ✔ ✔ The frequency of meteorological reports.
What colour are apron markings? - ✔ ✔ A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: - ✔ ✔ The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed
An operator shall not use a RVR of less than... for a visual approach. - ✔ ✔ 800 m
If there is sufficient time for information to be disseminated by other means, a NOTAM is not issued. What is the time limit? - ✔ ✔ 7 days
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: - ✔ ✔ Control zone
For departing aircraft, transfer from aerodrome control to approach control occurs when: - ✔ ✔ VMC prevail, prior to the time the aircraft leaves the vicinity off the aerodrome
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend - ✔ ✔ 10 NM
Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are: - ✔ ✔ yellow
The minimum permissible holding level provides a clearance above the obstacles of at least... in the holding area. - ✔ ✔ 984 ft
A pilot encountering windshear should report the fact to ATC: - ✔ ✔ as soon as possible
Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying at subsonic cruising levels? - ✔ ✔ Severe line squalls, heavy hail or severe icing
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft on track uses DME stations, is: - ✔ ✔ 20 NM
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures
as prescribed: - ✔ ✔ in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled in the event of a delay. For controlled flights, this should be done in the event of a delay in excess of: - ✔ ✔ 30 minutes
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: - ✔ ✔ Flashing red or preferably yellow
Which of the following has had a significant effect on the role and importance of aeronautical information and flight data? - ✔ ✔ The introduction of RNAV, RNP and computer systems
Regarding declared airfield distances the ASDA is: - ✔ ✔ the distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway
How is a taxiway holding position marked? - ✔ ✔ One or three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway
In a controlled airspace where DME separations are in use, two aeroplanes under IFR may fly the same Flight level, and the same route if the spacing is at least: - ✔ ✔ 20 NM, or 10 NM if the first aeroplane' s airspeed is greater than the second' s by at least 20 knots
In the " PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: - ✔ ✔ On or close to the approach slope
Series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on ground mean: - ✔ ✔ Taxi clear of landing area in use
A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means: - ✔ ✔ airfield is unsafe, do not land
What colour are runway edge lights? - ✔ ✔ White
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in- command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are: - ✔ ✔ 2 of each
The transition level: - ✔ ✔ shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud. - ✔ ✔ ASHTAM
When climbing or descending through the level of opposite direction traffic what is the minimum procedural separation allowed when based on distances from the same DME? - ✔ ✔ 10 nm
Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign: - ✔ ✔ Direction sign
Name the chapter in the AIP where one can find a list of significant differences between national regulations and practices of the State and the related ICAO Standards, Recommended Practices and Procedures: - ✔ ✔ GEN 1
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure?
Two aircraft will be flying the same route at the same cruising level. The first aircraft will be maintaining a TAS 20 kts faster than the second. The route is defined by radio aids. What is the appropriate longitudinal separation based - ✔ ✔ 5 minutes
Where ends the initial missed approach segment? - ✔ ✔ At the point where the climb is established
Which " code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? - ✔ ✔ Code letter " C"
At an aerodrome, a red pyrotechnic means: - ✔ ✔ Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: - ✔ ✔ An AIRAC
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: - ✔ ✔ 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
When are ATIS broadcasts updated? - ✔ ✔ Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
What is the speed limit applied in class C airspace? - ✔ ✔ 250 kts IAS to VFR traffic below FL100 only
You are flying IFR in IMC and you experience a total communications failure. Do you: - ✔ ✔ Continue the flight according to flight plan ETAs
On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: - ✔ ✔ aircraft taking off or about to take off
A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory: - ✔ ✔ cloud ceiling and RVR
What is the meaning of DER: - ✔ ✔ departure end of runway
What is the meaning of MEHT? - ✔ ✔ Minimum eye height
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported: - ✔ ✔ as flight level
A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out: - ✔ ✔ at a known elevation on the aerodrome
What documentation is required by persons travelling by air, for entry into a state? - ✔ ✔ The same as would be required if the person arrived by ship
When is deviation from the rules of the air permitted? - ✔ ✔ Only in the interests of flight safety
The white arrows which are painted on the runway surface indicate: - ✔ ✔ a temporarily or permanently displaced threshold
A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the runway on its final approach until the preceding departing aircraft has: - ✔ ✔ Started a turn
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at: - ✔ ✔ 300 m from threshold
" A surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position-fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate" is the definition for: - ✔ ✔ Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS).
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure? - ✔ ✔ the state
What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)? - ✔ ✔ To promote aircraft flight safety
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft " on track" uses DME stations, is: - ✔ ✔ 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
Which radar separation minima are applicable between succeeding aircraft established on the same final approach track within 10 nm of the runway? - ✔ ✔ 2.5 NM
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? - ✔ ✔ 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
Which signal to an aircraft in flight, means " return for landing"? - ✔ ✔ A series of green flashes
An instrument approach procedure consists of: - ✔ ✔ 5 segments
" Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means: - ✔ ✔ Engage brakes
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are: - ✔ ✔ GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: - ✔ ✔ in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement
What is put in item 8 of a flight plan form if the flight is to start under VFR and then change to IFR at the point specified in item 15? - ✔ ✔ Z
What is the most important factor when designing an instrument departure procedure? - ✔ ✔ terrain
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than: - ✔ ✔ +/- 20 kt
Which code shall be used on mode " A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft? - ✔ ✔ Code 7700
What is a 'barrette'? - ✔ ✔ a set of three lights which, from a distance, look like a single bar
What is the distance from the threshold to the beginning of the aiming point marking, if the landing distance available (LDA) is 2600m. - ✔ ✔ 400 m
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported: - ✔ ✔ as altitude
As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a climb gradient of: - ✔ ✔ 3.3% with all engines operating
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: - ✔ ✔ At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: - ✔ ✔ Fixed lights showing green
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: - ✔ ✔ By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways " L" and " R" - for 3 " L" , " C" and " R"
A flashing intermittent red light from the ground to an aircraft in the air means: - ✔ ✔ aerodrome unsafe, do not land
If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should: - ✔ ✔ advise ATC as early as possible
Which of the following statements is true about the signals area of an aerodrome? - ✔ ✔ It is only used for VFR operations
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated: - ✔ ✔ 25 NM ( km).
When flying in IFR you experience a total communications failure in VMC conditions. What should you do? - ✔ ✔ land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report your arrival by the most expedious means to the appropriate ATCU
Two or more white crosses, displayed on runways and taxiways, indicate that: - ✔ ✔ the section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is: - ✔ ✔ 1000 feet (300 m)
The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre): - ✔ ✔ is 15 minutes
The runway edge lights shall be: - ✔ ✔ white
A green intermittent light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means: - ✔ ✔ taxi approved
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: - ✔ ✔ The airport is unsafe, do not land
For a circling approach, the minimum OCH above aerodrome level is: - ✔ ✔ depends on aircraft category
One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: - ✔ ✔ The required visual references have been established and can be maintained
ILS CAT II/III operations are being carried out on parallel runways. When is wake turbulence separation to be applied? - ✔ ✔ At all times
The width of an advisory route is: - ✔ ✔ 10 NM
What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS (without glideslope) non- precision approach? - ✔ ✔ 250 ft
The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of: - ✔ ✔ 2.5% OIS and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance margin
In the case of a piloted flying machine, it shall be deemed to be in flight:
- ✔ ✔ from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until the moment it comes to rest after landing
Which of the statements below describes the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)? - ✔ ✔ The length of the runway plus the length of the stopway
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: - ✔ ✔ 5%
In a category A aircraft, what reversing turn manoeuvre takes 2 minutes in still air? - ✔ ✔ 80/260 procedure turn
