Download AHIMA CCA Exam 2025: ICD-9-CM Coding Practice Questions and more Exams Management of Health Service in PDF only on Docsity!
AHIMA CCA EXAM 202 5 /ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED &
GRADED A+
Identify the diagnosis code[s] for carcinoma in situ of vocal cord. a. 231. b. 161. c. 239. d. 212.1 - ✓✓ a. 231. Index Carcinoma, in situ, see also Neoplasm, by site, in situ. Identify the diagnosis code[s] for melanoma of skin of shoulder.
- 172.8, 172. b. 172. c. 172. d. 172.8 - ✓✓ b. 172. Index Melanoma [malignant], shoulder. Melanoma is considered a malignant neoplasm and is referenced as such in the index of ICD- 9 - CM. The term "benign neoplasm" is considered a growth that does not invade adjacent structures or spread to distant sties but may displace or exert pressure on adjacent structures. Which of the following organizations is responsible for updating the procedure classification of ICD- 9 - CM?
a. Centers for Disease Control [CDC] b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services [CMS] c. National Center for Health Statistics [NCHS] c. World Health Organization [WHO] - ✓✓ b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services [CMS] NCHS-Natl Center for Health Statistics is responsible for updating the diagnosis classification[Vol 1 & Vol 2], and CMS is responsible for updating the procedure classification [Vol 3]. At which level of classification system are the most specific ICD- 9 - CM codes found? a. Category level b. Section level c. Subcategory level d. Subclassification level - ✓✓ d. Subclassification level The most specific codes in the ICD- 9 - CM system are found at the subclassification level. What are five-digit ICD- 9 - CM diagnosis codes referred to as? a. Category codes b. Section codes
Which of the following ICD- 9 - CM codes classify environment events and circumstances as the cause of an injury, poisoning, or other adverse affect? a. Category codes b. E codes c. Subcategory codes d. V codes - ✓✓ b. E codes E codes provide a means to describe environmental events, circumstances, and conditions as the cause of injury, poisoning, and other adverse effects. Which volume of ICD- 9 - CM contains the Tabular and Alphabetic Index of procedures? a. Volume 1 b. Volume 2 c. Volume 3 d. Volume 4 - ✓✓ c. Volume 3 ICD- 9 - CM Volume 3 contains the Tabular List and Alphabetic Index of procedures. Identify the correct diagnosis code for lipoma of the face. a. 214. b. 213. c. 214.
d. 214.9 - ✓✓ c. 214. Index Lipoma, face. ICD- 9 - CM classifies neoplasms by system, organ, or site with the exception of neoplasms of the lymphatic and hematopoietic system, malignant melanomas of the skin, lipomas, common tumors of the bone, uterus, and ovary. Because of these exceptions, the Alphabetic Index must first be checked to determine whether a code has been assigned for that specific histology type. Identify the correct diagnosis code[s] for adenoma of adrenal cortex with Conn's syndrome. a. 227.0, 255. b. 227. c. 255. d. 225.12, 227.8 - ✓✓ a. 227.0, 255. Index Adenoma, adrenal [cortex]. Index Syndrome, Conn. According to the Index in ICD- 9 - CM, except where otherwise indicated, the morphological varieties of adenoma should be coded by site as for "Neoplasm, benign". Which of the following is a standard terminology used to code medical procedures and services? a. CPT b. HCPCS
a. Length of the lesion as described in the pathology report. b. Dimension of the specimen submitted as described in the pathology report. c. Width times the length of the lesion as described in the operative report. d. Diameter of the lesion as well as the most narrow margins required to adequately excise the lesion described in the operative report. - ✓✓d. Diameter of the lesion as well as the most narrow margins required to adequately excise the lesion described in the operative report. The code selection is determined by measuring the greatest clinical diameter of the apparent lesion plus that margin required for complete excision [lesion diameter plus narrow margins required equals the excised diameter]. According to CPT, a repair of a laceration that includes retention sutures would be considered what type of closure? a. Complex b. Intermediate c. Not specified d. Simple - ✓✓a. Complex Complex closure includes the repair of wounds requiring more than layered closure, namely, scar revision, debridement, extensive undermining, stents, or retention sutures. A patient is admitted with spotting. She had been treated two weeks previously for a miscarriage with sepsis. The sepsis had resolved, and she is afebrile at this time. She is
treated with an aspiration dilation and curettage. Products of conception are found. Which of the following should be the principal diagnosis? a. Miscarriage b. Complications of spontaneous abortion with sepsis c. Sepsis d. Spontaneous abortion with sepsis - ✓✓a. Miscarriage Subsequent admissions for retained products of conception following a spontaneous or legally induced abortion are assigned the appropriate code from category 634, spontaneous abortion, or 635, legally induced abortion, with a fifth digit of "1" [incomplete]. This advice is appropriate even when the patient was discharged previously with a discharge diagnosis of complete abortion. An 80 - year-old is admitted with fever, lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and elevated WBC. The patient has more than 100,000 organisms of Escherichia coli per cc of urine. The attending physician documents "urosepsis". How should the coder proceed to code this case? a. Code sepsis as the principal diagnosis with urinary tract infection due to E. coli as secondary diagnosis. b. Code urinary tract infection with sepsis as the principal diagnosis. c. Query the physician to ask if the patient has septicemia because of the symptomatology.
c. Metastatic carcinoma of the brain d. Carcinoma of the lung - ✓✓c. Metastatic carcinoma of the brain If treatment is directed at the malignancy, designate the malignancy as the principal diagnosis. The only exception to this guideline is if a patient admission or encounter is solely for the administration of chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiation therapy, assign the appropriate V code as the first-listed or principal diagnosis and the diagnosis or problem for which the service is being performed as a secondary diagnosis. A patient was admitted for abdominal pain with diarrhea and was diagnosed with infectious gastroenteritis. The patient also has angina and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following would be the correct coding and sequencing for this case? a. Abdominal pain; infectious gastroenteritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; angina b. Infectious gastroenteritis; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; angina c. Gastroenteritis; abdominal pain; angina d. Gastroenteritis; abdominal pain; diarrhea; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; angina - ✓✓b. Infectious gastroenteritis; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; angina
Gastroenteritis is characterized by diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, and abdominal cramps. Codes for symptoms, signs, and ill-defined condition from Chapter 16 of the CPT codebook are not to be used as the principal diagnosis when a related definitive diagnosis has been established. Patients can have several chronic conditions that coexists at the time of their hospital admission and quality as additional diagnosis such as COPD and angina. A patient is admitted with a history of prostate cancer and with mental confusion. The patient completed radiation therapy for prostatic carcinoma three years ago and is status post a radical resection of the prostate. A CT scan of the brain during the current admission reveals metastasis. Which of the following is the correct coding and sequencing for the current hospital stay? a. Metastatic carcinoma of the brain; carcinoma of the prostate; mental confusion b. Mental confusion; history of carcinoma of the prostate; admission for chemotherapy c. Metastatic carcinoma of the brain, history of carcinoma of the prostate d. Carcinoma of the prostate; metastatic carcinoma to the brain - ✓✓c. Metastatic carcinoma of the brain, history of carcinoma of the prostate When a primary malignancy has been previously excised or eradicated from its site and there is no further treatment directed to the site and there is no evidence of any existing
According to the UHDDS, which of the following is the definition of "other diagnoses"? a. Is recorded in the patient record b. Is documented by the attending physician c. Receives clinical evaluation of therapeutic treatment or diagnostic procedures or extends the length of stay or increases nursing care and monitoring. d. Is documented by at least physicians and the nursing staff. - ✓✓c. Receives clinical evaluation of therapeutic treatment or diagnostic procedures or extends the length of stay or increases nursing care and monitoring. For reporting purposes the definition for "other diagnoses" is interpreted as additional conditions that affect patient care in terms of requiring: clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, diagnostic procedures, extended length of hospital stay, increased nursing care, and monitoring. A 7 - year-old patient was admitted to the emergency department for treatment of shortness of breath. The patient is given epinephrine and nebulizer treatments. The shortness of breath and wheezing are unabated following treatment. What diagnosis should be suspected? a. Acute bronchitis
b. Acute bronchitis with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. c. Asthma with status asthmaticus d. Chronic obstructive asthma - ✓✓c. Asthma with status asthmaticus A patient in status asthmaticus fails to respond to therapy administered during an asthmatic attack. This is a life-threatening condition that requires emergency care and likely hospitalization. A patient is seen in the emergency department for chest pain. After evaluation of the patient it is suspected that the patient may have gastroesophageal reflux disease [GERD]. The final diagnosis was "Rule out chest pain versus GERD". The correct ICD- 9 - CM code is: a. V71.7, Admission for suspected cardiovascular condition b. 789.01 Esophageal pain c. 530.81 Gastrointestinal reflux d. 786.50 Chest pain NOS - ✓✓d. 786.50 Chest pain NOS Signs, symptoms, abnormal tests results, or other reasons for the outpatient visit are used when a physician qualifies a diagnostic statement as "rule out" or other similar terms indicating uncertainty. In the outpatient setting the condition qualified in that statement should not be coded as if its existed. Rather, the condition should be coded to the highest degree of certainty, such as the sign or symptom the patient exhibits. In this case, assign the code 786.50, Chest pain NOS.
d. 660.11, 653.91, 01996 - ✓✓c. 660.11, 653.41, 01967, 01968 The disproportion was specified as cephalopelvic; thus the correct ICD- 9 - CM code is 653.41. Two codes are required for anesthesia: one for the planned vaginal delivery [01967] and an add-on code [01968] to describe anesthesia for cesarean delivery following planned vaginal delivery converted to cesarean. An instructional not guides the coder to use 01968 and 01967. Which of the following statements does not apply to ICD- 9 - CM? a. It can be used as the basis for epidemiological research. b. It can be used in the evaluation of medical care planning for healthcare delivery systems. c. It can be used to facilitate data storage and retrieval d. It can be used to collect data about nursing care. - ✓✓d. It can be used to collect data about nursing care. According to Central Office on ICD- 9 - CM, ICD- 9 - CM is not used to collect data about nursing care. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of ICD- 9 - CM? a. Classification of morbidity for statistical purposes. b. Classification of mortality for statistical purposes
c. Reporting of diagnoses by physicians d. Identification of the supplies, products, and services provided to patients. - ✓✓d. Identification of the supplies, products, and services provided to patients. [HCPCS] According to Central Office on ICD- 9 - CM, ICD- 9 - CM is not used to identify supplies, products, and services used by patients. Which volume of ICD- 9 - CM contains the numerical listing of codes that represent diseases and injuries? a. Volume 1 [Tab] b. Volume 2 [Index} c. Volume 3 [Pcs] d. Volume 4 - ✓✓a. Volume 1 ICD- 9 - CM Volume 1 is known as the Tabular List and contains the numerical listing of codes that represents diseases and injuries. When coding benign neoplasm of the skin, the section noted here directs the coder to: 216 Benign Neoplasm of Skin [Category] Includes: Blue Nevus
A patient was discharged with the following diagnoses: "Cerebral occlusion, hemiparesis, and hypertension. The aphasia removed before the patient was discharged". Which of the following code assignments would be appropriate for this case? 342.90 Hemiparesis affecting unspecified side. 342.91 Hemiparesis affecting dominant side 342.92 Hemiparesis affecting nondominant side 434.90 Cerebral artery occlusion occlusion unspecified, without mention of cerebral infarction. 434.91 Cerebral artery occlusion unspecified with cerebral infarction 401 Hypertension 401.1 Malignant hypertension 401.9 Unspecified hypertension 428.0 Congestive heart failure. 784.3 Aphasia a. 434.91, 342.92, 784.3, 401 b. 434.90, 342.90, 784.3, 401. c. 434.90, 342.90, 401.
d. 434.90, 342.90, 784.3, 401.0 - ✓✓b. 434.90, 342.90, 784.3, 401. Code 434.91 is assigned when the diagnosis states stroke, cerebrovascular, or cerebrovascular accident [CVA] without further specification. The health record should be reviewed to make sure nothing more specific is available. Conditions resulting from an acute cerebrovascular disease, such as aphasia or hemiplegia, should be coded as well. A patient is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and congestive heart failure. The patient subsequently develops respiratory failure. The patient undergoes intubation with ventilator management. Which of the following would be the correct sequencing and coding of this case? a. Congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management, intubation. b. Respiratory failure, intubation, ventilator management. c. Respiratory failure, congestive heart failure, intubation, ventilator management. d. Shortness of breath, congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management. - ✓✓a. Congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management, intubation.
