Download ACP-CTP Exam Study Guide: Energy, Maneuvering, and Stall Recovery and more Exams Physics of Energy Devices in PDF only on Docsity!
ACTUAL 2025 LATEST UPDATE ACP-CTP EXAM
STUDY GUIDE WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (RATED A+) 100%
SUCCESS
Which of the following statements regarding energy is true? (A) Kinetic energy decreases with increasing airspeed. (B) Potential energy is approximately proportional to airspeed. (C) Chemical energy remains constant throughout a flight (D) Kinetic energy can be traded for potential energy, and potential energy can be traded for kinetic energy - ✔✔(D) Kinetic energy can be traded for potential energy, and potential energy can be traded for kinetic energy The objective in maneuvering the airplane is to manage energy so that: (A) Kinetic energy stays between limits (stall and placard) (B) Potential energy sstays between limits (terrain and buffet altitude) (C) Chemical energy stays above certain thresholds (not running out of fuel) (D) All of the above - ✔✔(D) All of the above What is the effect on total drag is airspeed slows below L/D Max? (A) Drag increases because of increased parasite drag (B) Drag decreases because of lower induced drag (C) Drag increases because of increased induced drag - ✔✔(C) Drag increses because of increased induced drag A jet pilot flying at L/D Max is obtain best:
(A) Range (B) Endurance (C) Ride Quality - ✔✔(B) Endurance When a jet aircraft is flown at the appropriate airspeed for maximum range, which type of drag predominates? (A) Parasite (B) Induced (C) Each type of drag contributes equally - ✔✔(A) Parasite While already at high speed, what happens if Mach is allowed to increase? (A) Airflow over parts of the airplane begin to exceed the speed of sound (B) Shock waves can cause local airflow separation (C) Characteristics such as pitch-up, pitch-down, or buffeting may occur. (D) All of the above - ✔✔(D) All of the above What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? (A) A high-speed stall and sudden pitch-up (B) Severe porpoising. (C) A severe moment or "Mach Tuck - ✔✔(C) A severe moment or "Mach Tuck The speed of sound generally decreases with increasing altitude. This occurs because: (A) The air temperature decreases.
(D) All of the above - ✔✔(D) All of the above To maintain altitude in a banked turn, the lift produced by an airplane must be: (A) Greater than the airplane weight, and the amount is a function of bank angle (B) Greater than the airplane weight, and the amount is a function of altitude (C) Equal to the weight of the airplane. - ✔✔(A) Greater than the airplane weight, and the amount is a function of bank angle Excessive bank angles at high altitudes can be hazardous because: (A) The extra drag produced by the turn can lead to an excursion below L/DMax (B) Aircraft engines at higher altitudes produce less thrust to overcome drag (C) The aircraft will be operating closer to its buffet boundaries (D) All of the above - ✔✔(D) All of the above When operating at a constant airspeed with a contact thrust setting at high altitude (typically above FL250) in slow flight below L/DMax airspeed, any disturbance causing decrease in airspeed will result in a further decrease in airspeed unless thrust in increased. High altitude recovery from slow flight while turning is best accomplished by: (A) Increasing thrust to arrest the slowdown (B) Increasing thrust to accelerate to airspeed above L/DMax speed (C) Increasing thrust to maximum available thrust and reducing bank angle while accelerating to airspeed above L/D Max speed. In a thrust limited situation, exiting slow flight will require an immediate descent as an aerodynamic stall is imminent. - ✔✔(C) Increasing thrust to maximum available thrust and reducing bank angle while accelerating to airspeed above L/D Max speed. In a thrust limited situation, exiting slow flight will require an immediate descent as an aerodynamic stall is imminent. Maximum Altitude is the highest altitude at which an airplane can be operated. Maximum Altitude for an airplane is:
(A) Maximum Certified Altitude - The altitude determined during certification set by the pressurization structural load limits on the fuselage. (B) Thrust Limited Altitude - The altitude at which sufficient thrust is available to provide a specific minimum rate of climb. (C) Buffet or Maneuver Limited Altitude - the altitude at which a specific maneuver margin exists prior to buffet onset. (D) The highest of the above listed altitudes. (E) The lowest of the above listed altitudes. - ✔✔(E) The lowest of the above listed altitudes. Exceed the critical angle of attack and the surface will stall, and lift will decrease instead of increasing. This is true: (A) Unless the airplane is in a nose-down pitch attitude (B) Only if the airspeed is low (C) Only if the airplane is in a nose-high pitch attitude (D) Regardless of airplane speed or attitude - ✔✔(D) Regardless of airplane speed or attitude Which of the following statements is true: (A) A stall is a controlled situation (B) An approach to stall warning is an uncontrolled situation (C) To recover from a nose-low stall, angle of attack must be increased (D) Recovery from approach to stall warning is the same as recovery from a stall - ✔✔(D) Recovery from approach to stall warning is the same as recovery from a stall Airplane stall speeds are published in the Approved Flight Manual for each airplane model. These speeds are presented as a function of aircraft weight. Therefore, if a pilot maintains airspeed above the appropriate speed listed for the aircraft weight, the aircraft will not stall. (A) True (B) False - ✔✔(B) False
(B) Apply nose down pitch control until impending stall indications are eliminated (C) Adjust bank angle to wings level (F) apply thrust as needed (A) Retract speed brakes and spoilers (E) Return to the desired flight path The predominant number of airplane upsets are caused by: (A) Environmental factors (B) Airplane system anomalies (C) pilot induced factors - ✔✔(A) Environmental factors Most of the multiengine turbojet loss-of-control incidents that are caused by environmental factors are because of: (A) microbursts (B) wind shear (C) airplane icing (D) wake turbulence - ✔✔(D) Wake turbulence When initiating recommended airplane upset recovery techniques, the first two techniques are: a. Maintain altitude and apply additional thrust b. Reduce the angle of attack and maneuver toward wings level c. Recognize and confirm the situation and disengage the autopilot and autothrottles d. Determine the malfunction and disengage the autopilot and autothrottles - ✔✔c. Recognize and confirm the situation and disengage the autopilot and autothrottles In a nose high, wings level airplane upset, after accomplishing the first two recommended techniques...
a. Apply up to full nose down elevator and consider trimming off some control force b. Immediately roll into a 60 degree bank c. Maintain at least 1G force d. Immediately establish sideslip in order to maintain at least 1G Force - ✔✔a. Apply up to full nose down elevator and consider trimming off some control force b. Immediately roll into a 60 degree bank During recovery from a nose low, high bank angle airplane upset: a. if 90 degree of bank is exceeded, continue the roll to wings level b. it may be necessary to unload the airplane by decreasing back pressure c. increase elevator back pressure while beginning to roll toward wings level - ✔✔b. it may be necessary to unload the airplane by decreasing back pressure When should an upset recovery be initiated? a. only when pitch or bank reaches specified limit values b. only when the airspeed is rapidly decreasing (increasing) c. whenever an unintentional excessive divergence from the intended flight path and/or airspeed occurs
- ✔✔c. whenever an unintentional excessive divergence from the intended flight path and/or airspeed occurs During recovery from an airplane upset: a. Pilots must be very careful to maintain at least 1G Force b. altitude should always be maintained. c. training and experience gained from one airplane may always be transferred to another d. pilots must be prepared to use full control authority - ✔✔d. pilots must be prepared to use full control authority Why do de-icing methods typically require the airplane to be sprayed twice?
If an autoland system is designed such that it can continue to a safe landing even after the failure of one component, that system is: a. Fail-passive b. Fail-operational c. Automatically approved for use in CAT III ILS approaches - ✔✔b. Fail-operational Fill in the blanks: Category I ILS approaches have decision heights as low as feet. Category II approaches have DHs as low as feet. Category IIIC approaches have DHs as low as feet. a. 400:200: b. 200:100: c. 200:100: d. 150:50:0 - ✔✔c. 200:100: You come off duty at 9 am after working an overnight flight, and are scheduled to report at 9 pm to work another flight. When you arrive at your hotel, you find the room is not available until 2 pm. Will you be legal to fly as scheduled tonight? a. Yes b. No - ✔✔b. No Symptoms of fatigue include: a. Slowed reaction times b. Difficulty maintaining situational awareness c. Changes in mood d. Lapses in attention e. All of the above - ✔✔e. All of the above
FAR 91.17 states that pilots cannot fly with a BAC of 0.04 percent or greater, or within 8 hours after consuming alcohol. As long as these requirements are net, is an airline pilot guaranteed to be safe to fly? a. No, because individual airlines may set their own policies requiring waiting periods longer than 8 hours. b. No, because a pilot may still b impaired by the effects of alcohol even after sobering up c. Yes, because as long as you meet the legal minimums you are good to go. d. a and b - ✔✔d. a and b Which type of hypoxia could result if your aircraft depressurizes at altitude? a. Hypoxic b. Hypemic c. Histotoxic d. Stagnant - ✔✔a. Hypoxic Which of the following are considered violations of the sterile cockpit rule? a. Using your laptop to check how your fantasy football team is doing while cruising at FL b. Conducting a departure briefing while taxiing to your assigned runway c. Announcing connecting gate information to your passengers while taxing to the gate after landing d. Pointing out a national landmark to the passengers while climbing through 18000 ft e. A flight attendant calling you just after takeoff to report smoke in the rear galley f. Drinking coffee while waiting to intercept the glideslope on an approach - ✔✔Violations of the sterile cockpit rule: a. Using your laptop to check how your fantasy football team is doing while cruising at FL c. Announcing connecting gate information to your passengers while taxing to the gate after landing f. Drinking coffee while waiting to intercept the glideslope on an approach
b. Do-verify checklists c. Manufacturer checklists - ✔✔b. Do-verify checklists Operational control of a flight refers to: a. Exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft. b. The specific duties of any required crewmember c. Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight - ✔✔c. Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight In scheduling Part 121 operations, preflight planning is the responsibility of the: a. Pilot-in-command b. Dispatcher c. Flight follower d. a and b e. a and c - ✔✔d. a and b In scheduled Part 121 operations, the pilot-in-command and dispatcher certify that the appropriate planning is complete by signing the: a. Dispatch release b. Flight release c. Load manifest d. Flight plan - ✔✔a. Dispatch release An item on the MEL has a remark labeled (M). This indicates that: a. You must fly at a lower than standard (M)ach number b. (M)aybe you can fly the airplane that day
c. You must consult the airplane's Approved Flight (M)anual for more information d. A (M)aintenance procedure must be completed before the airplane can be flown - ✔✔d. A (M)aintenance procedure must be completed before the airplane can be flown A piece of equipment on your aircraft malfunctions while in flight. Which document should you consult to determine how to continue? a. The MEL b. The CDL c. The QRH - ✔✔c. The QRH While reviewing the maintenance log for your aircraft, you discover that a category B item was reported at 9:15 on March 17th. The aircraft becomes unairworthy at the stroke of midnight at the end of: a. March 19 b. March 20 c. March 26 d. March 27 - ✔✔b. March 20 A pilot accidentally taxies across a runway that ATC did not clear them to cross. However, that runway is not currently in use, and so no aircraft were attempting to takeoff or land on that runway. Has the pilot committed a runway incursion? a. yes b. no - ✔✔a. Yes You are in low visibility at an unfamiliar airport, and you and your captain realize you have become disoriented. Your immediate next step should be: a. Stop the aircraft b. Continue taxing straight ahead on your current taxiway
d. Rotating beacon e. Anti-collision lights f. Position/Navigation lights (All but C. Landing Lights) ATC didn't tell you why you are waiting on the runway. How long should you wait before reminding ATC you are still holding? a. 10 seconds b. 45 seconds c. 90 seconds d. 3 minutes - ✔✔c. 90 seconds Pilots of general aviation aircraft commonly make approaches and landings with throttle settings near idle. Why is this technique inappropriate for turbine powered aircraft? a. Turbine engines often flame out at low RPM settings b. Turbine engines are slow to respond to changes in power setting c. Turbine engines at idle produce a significant amount of drag causing excessive sink rates - ✔✔b. Turbine engines are slow to respond to changes in power setting Including the allowance for carry-on baggage and personal items, what is the standard average passenger weight currently recommended by the FAA? (Assume it is summer.) a. 150 pounds b. 170 pounds c. 190 pounds d. 210 pounds - ✔✔c. 190 pounds
A planes LEMAC is 500 inches aft of datum and it's MAC is 100 inches. You calculate that it's center of gravity is located 522 inches aft 0f datum. What is the CG expressed in %MAC? a. 17 percent b. 22 percent c. 27 percent d. 32 percent - ✔✔b. 22 percent To minimize the length of runway required (or equivalently, maximize the weight at which we can take off from a given runway), we select V1 so that: a. The accelerate-stop distance is equal to the accelerate-go distance b. The accelerate-stop distance is longer than the accelerate go distance c. The accelerate-stop distance is shorter than the accelerate-go distance - ✔✔a. The accelerate-stop distance is equal to the accelerate-go distance V1 cannot be: a. less than VMCG b. Less than VMCA c. Greater than VR d. a and c - ✔✔d. a and c When following the one-engine inoperative climb profile, what is the only configuration change allowed below 400 feet? a. retracting flaps b. Retracting slats c. Reducing power to max continuous d. Retracting landing gear - ✔✔d. Retracting landing gear
What is the difference between the flight director and the autopilot? a. The flight director calculates what control movements are required, and the autopilot executes them b. The autopilot calculates what control movements are required, and the flight director executes them. c. The autopilot adjusts the flights control surfaces, and the flight director adjusts the throttles - ✔✔a. The flight director calculates what control movements are required, and the autopilot executes them It is impossible to stall an airplane with "hard" envelope protections a. True b. False - ✔✔b. False ATC instructs you to climb immediately at the same time as a TCAS resolution advisory says "Descend. Descend." You should: a. Climb b. Descend c. Fly level d. Inform ATC that TCAS told you to to descend and ask them what they should do. - ✔✔b. Descend While at 15,000 feet, ATC asks you to fly at 280 knots. They then clear you to descend to 8000 feet. You should: a. Descend at 280 knots to 10,000 feet, level off and slow down to 250 knots, then continue the descent at 250 knots b. Descend to 8000 feet at 280 knots c. Descend at 280 knots to 10,000 feet then begin slowing to 250 knots as you continue to descend - ✔✔a. Descend at 280 knots to 10,000 feet, level off and slow down to 250 knots, then continue the descent at 250 knots The distinguishing feature of RNAV is that it:
a. Is based on signals from satellites rather than ground based navaids. b. Measures linear deviations from the desired course, rather than angular deviations. c. Allows navigation along a direct route between any two points. - ✔✔c. Allows navigation along a direct route between any two points. While flying a standard RNAV (GPS) approach (special approval not required), how accurate must the navigation system be during the final approach segment? a. Within 1.0 NM of the desired track, 95 percent of the time b. Within 0.5 NM of the desired track, 99 percent of the time c. Within 0.3 NM of the desired track, 95 percent of the time d. Within 0.1 NM of the desired track, 99 percent of the time - ✔✔c. Within 0.3 NM of the desired track, 95 percent of the time You are a regional airline first officer, and your captain steps out of the cockpit to use the lavatory. Do you put on your oxygen mask? b. Yes, but only at altitudes above FL150. - ✔✔b. Yes, but only at altitudes above FL150. Which of the following is NOT a stage in a high bypass turbofan engine? c. Afterburning - ✔✔c. Afterburning Numerous NTSB investigations have revealed a trend that indicates many accidents are caused by: a. Lapses in pilot professionalism b. Failure to adhere to SOPs c. Failure to maintain sterile cockpit d. All of the above - ✔✔d. All of the above
