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AAPC CPC Exam Practice Questions: ICD-10-CM and CPT Coding, Exams of Management of Health Service

A series of multiple-choice questions and answers related to medical coding, specifically focusing on icd-10-cm and cpt coding. It covers various scenarios and requires the application of coding guidelines to determine the correct codes for diagnoses, procedures, and services. The material is designed to test and enhance understanding of medical coding principles and their practical application in healthcare settings. It includes questions on anatomy, physiology, and medical terminology, providing a comprehensive review of essential concepts for coding accuracy. Useful for students and professionals in medical coding and billing.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/05/2025

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AAPC CPC FINAL|2025-2026|(3 LATEST VERSIONS EACH
100 QUESTIONS) ALL 300 QUESTIONS&ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES|LATEST UPDATE SPRING 2025|GRADED A+
VERSION 1
The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health
information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular
purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean?
a.
Staff members are allowed to access any medical record without restriction
b.
Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health
information.
c.
Practices should only provide minimum necessary information to patients.
d.
All of the above
- ANSWER>>b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to
protected health information.
EHR stands for:
a. Electronic health record b.
Extended health record
c. Electronic health response
d. Established health record
- ANSWER>>a. Electronic health record
The AAPC offers over 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of
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Download AAPC CPC Exam Practice Questions: ICD-10-CM and CPT Coding and more Exams Management of Health Service in PDF only on Docsity!

AAPC CPC FINAL| 2025 - 2026|(3 LATEST VERSIONS EACH

100 QUESTIONS) ALL 300 QUESTIONS&ANSWERS AND

RATIONALES|LATEST UPDATE SPRING 2025|GRADED A+

VERSION 1

The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean? a. Staff members are allowed to access any medical record without restriction b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protectedhealth information. c. Practices should only provide minimum necessary information to patients. d. All of the above

  • ANSWER>>b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. EHR stands for: a. Electronic health recordb. Extended health record c. Electronic health response d. Established health record
  • ANSWER>>a. Electronic health record The AAPC offers over 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of

a. Continuing education and networkingb. Membership dues c. Regulations and bylaws d. Financial management

  • ANSWER>>a. Continuing education and networking What does the abbreviation MAC stand for? a. Medicaid Alert Contractor b. Medicare Advisory Contractor c. Medicare Administrative Contractor d. Medicaid Administrative Contractor
    • ANSWER>>c. Medicare Administrative Contractor The OIG recommends that provider practices enforce disciplinary actions through well publicized compliance guidelines to ensure actions that are. a. Permanent b. Consistent and appropriatec. Frequent d. Swift and enforceable
  • ANSWER>>b. Consistent and appropriate Through which vessel is oxygenated blood returned to the heart from the lungs? a. Pulmonary veinb.

d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face

  • ANSWER>>d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face A gonioscopy is an examination of what part of the eye: a. Anterior chamber of the eyeb. Lacrimal duct c. Interior surface of the eye d. Posterior segment
  • ANSWER>>a. Anterior chamber of the eye What type of code is assigned when the provider documents the reason for a patientseeking healthcare services that is not for an injury or disease? a. Non-specific code b. External cause code (V00-Y99)c. Z code (Z00-Z99) d. ICD- 10 - PCS
  • ANSWER>>c. Z code (Z00-Z99) What is the ICD- 10 - CM code for hay fever?
  • ANSWER>>J30. What is the ICD- 10 - CM code for swine flu? a. J10.1 b. A08.4 c.

J11.

d. J09.X2 - ANSWER>>d. J09.X What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported for enlargement of the prostate with asymptom of urinary retention? a. N40. b. N40.3, R33.8c. N40. d. N40.1, R33.

  • ANSWER>>d. N40.1, R33. What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for behavioral disturbances in a patient withearly onset Alzheimer's? a. G30.8, F02.81b. F02. c. F02.81, G30. d. G30.0, F02.
    • ANSWER>>d. G30.0, F02. What is the ICD- 10 - CM code for a patient with postoperative anemia due to acute bloodloss during the surgery who needs a blood transfusion? a. D64. b. D53. c. D50.

a. E66.01, Z68.42b. E66.3, Z68.45 c. E66. d. E66.01, Z68.

  • ANSWER>>a. E66.01, Z68. A 58 - year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. F02.80, G30.0, F29, F41.3b. G30.0, F02. c. F02.80, G30. d. G30.0, F02.80, F29, R41.3 – ANSWER>>b. G30.0, F02. What would be considered an adverse effect? a. Shortness of breath when running b. Rash developing when taking penicillinc. Hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery d. Wound infection after surgery
  • ANSWER>>b. Rash developing when taking penicillin What is a TRUE statement in reporting pressure ulcers? a. When a pressure ulcer is at on stage and progresses to the higher stage, report thelowest

stage for that site. b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolvesto another stage during the admission. c. When documentation does not provide the stage of the pressure ulcer, report the unstageable pressure ulcer code(L89.95). d. The site of the ulcer and the stage of the ulcer are reported with two separate codes.

  • ANSWER>>b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressureulcer that evolves to another stage during the admission. A child has a splinter under the right middle fingernail. What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported? a. S61.222Ab. S61.227A c. S61.242A d. S60.452A
    • ANSWER>>d. S60.452A A 16-year-old male is brought to the ED by his mother. He was riding his bicycle in the park when he fell off the bike. The patient's right arm is painful to touch, discolored, andswollen. The X-ray shows a closed fracture of the ulna. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. S52.201A, V19.9XXA, Y92.830 b. S52.201A, V18.4XXA, Y92.831 c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92. d. S52.209A, V18.4XXA, Y92.830 – ANSWER>>c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92.

What is the correct CPT® code for a MRI performed on the brain first without contrast and then with contrast? a. 70554 b. 70553 c. 70552 d. 70551

  • ANSWER>>b. 70553 How are ambulance modifiers used? a. They identify the time elements of the ambulance service.b. They identify the mileage traveled during the encounter. c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. d. they identify emergency or non-emergency transport types. - ANSWER>>c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. What is the correct CPT® code for the wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrowntoenail? - ANSWER>> Rationale: In the CPT® Index, look for Excision/Nail Fold referring you to 11765. A patient is taken to surgery for removal of a squamous cell carcinoma of the right thigh.What is the correct diagnosis code for today's procedure? a. C44. b. C44.

c. D79. d. C79.2 - ANSWER>>a. C44. In ICD- 10 - CM, what type of burn is considered corrosion? - ANSWER>>Burns due to chemicals Joe has a terrible problem with ingrown toenails. He goes to the podiatrist to have a nail permanently removed along with the nail matrix. What CPT® code is reported? a. 11720 b. 11730 c. 11750 d. 11765 - ANSWER>>c. 11750 The patient is seen for removal of fatty tissue of the posterior iliac crest, abdomen, and the medial and lateral thighs. Suction-assisted lipectomy was undertaken in the left posterior iliac crest area and was continued on the right and the lateral trochanteric and posterior aspect of the medial thighs. The medial right and left thighs were suctioned followed by the abdomen. The total amount infused was 2300 cc and the total amount removed was 2400 cc. The incisions were closed and a compression garment was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 15877, 15878 - 50 - 51 b. 15877, 15879 - 50 - 51 c. 15830, 15839 - 50 - 51, 15847 d. 15830, 15832 - 50 - 51 - ANSWER>>b. 15877, 15879 - 50 - 51

5 - hole 1/3 tubular plate was then applied to the lateral contours of the fibula with cortical and cancellous bone screws. Final radiographs showed restoration of the fibula. The wound was irrigated and closed with suture and staples on the skin. Sterile dressing was applied followed by a posterior splint. What CPT® code is reported? a. 27823 - RT b. 27792 - RT c. 27814 - RT d. 27787 - RT - ANSWER>>b. 27792 - RT A 49-year-old female presented with chronic deQuervain's disease and has been unresponsive to physical therapy, bracing or cortisone injection. She has opted for moredefinitive treatment. After induction of anesthesia, the patient's left arm was prepared and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Local anesthetic was injected using a combination 2% lidocaine and 0.25% Marcaine. A transverse incision was made over the central area of the first dorsal compartment. The subcutaneous tissues were gently spread to protect the neural and venous structures. The retractors were placed. The fascial sheath of the first dorsal compartment was then incised and opened carefully.

The underlying thumb abductor and extensor tendons were identified. The tissues weredissected and the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. The fibrotic tissue was incised and the tendons gently released. The tendons were fre - ANSWER>>d. 25000 - LT Rationale: The report states the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. Look in CPT index for Incision/Wrist/Tendon Sheath 25000-25001. Code 25000shows deQuervain's disease in the description. Modifier LT is appended to inciate procedure is performed on the left side. A 45-year-old presents to the operating room with a right index trigger finger and left shoulder bursitis. The left shoulder was injected with 1 cc of Xylocaine, 1 cc of Celestone and 1 cc of Marcaine. An approximately 1-inch incision was made over the A1 pulley in the distal transverse palmar crease. This incision was taken through skin and subcutaneous tissue. The A pulley was identified and released in its entirety. The wound was irrigated with antibiotic saline solution. The subcutaneous tissue was injected with Marcaine without epinephrine. The skin was closed with 4-0 Ethilon suture.Clean dressing was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 20553-F6, 20610- 51 - LT b. 20552 - F6, 20605 - 52 - LT c. 26055 - F6, 20610 - 76 - LT d. 26055 - F6, 20610 - 51 - LT - ANSWER>>d. 26055 - F6, 20610 - 51 - LT A 3-year-old is brought into the ED crying. He cannot bend his left arm after his older brother twisted it. X-ray is performed and the ED physician diagnoses the patient has a dislocated

established immediately. The ED provider performs an emergency transtrachealtracheostomy. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 31603, T17.220A b. 31603, T17.290A c. 31601, J34.9, T17.298A d. 31601, 31603, T17.228A - ANSWER>>b. 31603, T17.290A What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported for pyopneumothorax with fistula? - ANSWER>>J86. A patient with chronic pneumothoraces presents for chemopleurodesis. Under local anesthesia a small incision is made between the ribs. A catheter is inserted into the pleural space between the parietal and pleural viscera. Subsequently, 5g of sterile asbestos free talc was introduced into the pleural space via the catheter. What CPT®and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 32560, J93. b. 32650, 32560, J93. c. 32650, J95. d. 32601, 32560, J95.811 - ANSWER>>a. 32560, J93. Response Feedback: Rationale:Chemopleurodesis is represented by codes 32560-32562. In the CPT® Indexlook for Pleurodesis/Instillation of Agent. Code 32560 is appropriate for the described actions taken to

instill the talc used to treat recurrent pneumothorax. Look in the ICD- 10 - CM Alphabetic Index for Pneumothorax NOS/chronic which directsyou to code J93.81. Verification in the Tabular List confirms code selection. A 25-year-old male presents with a deviated nasal septum. The patient undergoes a nasal septum repair and submucous resection. Cartilage from the bony septum was detached and the nasoseptum was realigned and removed in a piecemeal fashion. Thereafter, 4-0 chronic was used to approximate mucous membranes. Next, submucous resection of the turbinates was handled in the usual fashion by removingthe anterior third of the bony turbinate and lateral mucosa followed by bipolar cauterization. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 30450, 30999 - 51 b. 30520, 30140 - 51 c. 30420, 30140 - 51 d. 30620, 30999 - 51 - ANSWER>>b. 30520, 30140 - 51 Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones?

Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. Rationale: ICD- 10 - CM Coding Guidelines I.C.9.a states a causal relationship is presumed between hypertension and heart involvement. Only if the documentation specifically states they are unrelated, are they to be coded separately. ICD- 10 - CM guideline I.C.9.a.1 indicates two codes are required to report hypertension and heartfailure. A patient presents for extremity venous study. Complete noninvasive physiologic studies of both lower extremities were performed. Which CPT® code is reported? - ANSWER>> Rationale: Code 93970 reports a complete bilateral noninvasive physiologic study of extremity veins. This study is found in the CPT® Index by looking for Vascular Studies/Venous Studies/Extremity which directs you to 93970-93971. Modifier 50 is not appended because the term bilateral is included in the code description for 93970. When reporting an encounter for screening of malignant neoplasms of the intestinaltract, what does the 5th character indicate?

A) History of malignancy in the intestinal tract B) Laterality of the intestinal tract C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract D) Screening codes for malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract are only reported with four characters. - ANSWER>>C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinaltract Bile empties into the duodenum through what structure? A) Pyloric sphincter B) Biliary artery C) Common bile duct D) Common hepatic duct - ANSWER>>C) Common Bile Duct What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported for non-erosive duodenitis? a. K29. b. K29. c. K29. d. K29.91 - ANSWER>>a. K29. A 57-year-old patient with chronic pancreatitis presents to the operating room for a pancreatic duct-jejunum anastomosis by the Puestow-type operation. What CPT® andICD- 10 - CM codes are reported for the encounter? a. 48548, K85. b. 48520, K86.