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CPC Practice Test: Medical Coding Questions and Answers, Exams of Computer Science

A practice test with questions and answers related to medical coding, specifically focusing on the cpc (certified professional coder) exam. It covers topics such as healthcare regulations, medical terminology, anatomy, and icd-10-cm coding guidelines. The questions are designed to assess the coder's knowledge and application of coding principles in various medical scenarios, including diagnosis coding, procedure coding, and compliance. Rationales for the correct answers, offering insights into the coding process and guidelines. It is a valuable resource for students and professionals preparing for medical coding certifications or seeking to enhance their coding skills. The test includes questions on covered entities, mac, abn, aapc credentialed coders, lcd, human lymphatic system, hemic, brain, radiology, dystonia, icd-10-cm, cpt, and hcpcs codes.

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2024/2025

Available from 05/17/2025

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AAPC
CPC FINAL
PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% CORRECT
1. A covered entity does NOT include
a. Healthcare providers
b. Health plans
c. Patients
d. Clearinghouses
ANS c. Patients
2. What does MAC stands for?
a. Medicare Administrative Contractor
b. Medicare Advisory Contractor
c. Medicaid Administrative Contractor
d. Medicaid Alert Contractor
ANS a. Medicare Administrative Contractor
3. When are providers responsible for obtaining an ABN for a service NOT
considered medically necessary?
a. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary.
b. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary.
c. After a denial has been received from Medicare.
d. During a procedure or service.
ANS b. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
4. AAPC credentialed coders have proven mastery of what information?
a. Code sets
b. Evaluation and management principles
c. Documentation guidelines
d. All of the above
ANS d. All of the above
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AAPC CPC FINAL PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND

ANSWERS 100% CORRECT

1. A covered entity does NOT include

a. Healthcare providers

b. Health plans

c. Patients

d. Clearinghouses

ANS c. Patients

2. What does MAC stands for?

a. Medicare Administrative Contractor

b. Medicare Advisory Contractor

c. Medicaid Administrative Contractor

d. Medicaid Alert Contractor

ANS a. Medicare Administrative Contractor

3. When are providers responsible for obtaining an ABN for a service NOT

considered medically necessary?

a. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary.

b. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary.

c. After a denial has been received from Medicare.

d. During a procedure or service.

ANS b. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary

4. AAPC credentialed coders have proven mastery of what information?

a. Code sets

b. Evaluation and management principles

c. Documentation guidelines

d. All of the above

ANS d. All of the above

5. Local Coverage Determinations are administered by whom?

a. LMRPs

b. NCDs

c. State Law

d. Each regional MAC

ANS d. Each regional MAC Rationale ANS Each Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) is then responsible for interpreting national policies into regional policies

6. Which of the following best describes constituent components of the

human lymphatic system?

a. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, spleen, thoracic duct

b. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, thymus gland, pancreas

c. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, tonsils, liver

d. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, bone marrow, kidneys

ANS a. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, spleen, thoracic duct

7. The term hemic specifically refers to what bodily fluid?

a. Bile interstitial fluid

b. Interstitial fluid

c. Blood

d. Lymph

ANS c. Blood

8. Which part of the brain controls blood pressure, heart rate and respira- tion?

a. Cerebellum

b. Cerebrum

c. Cortex

d. Medulla

ANS d. Medulla

9. The radiology term fluoroscopy is described as

ANS

d. R53. ANS d. R53.

14. A patient sees his primary care provider for chest pain and regurgitation. The

provider's diagnosis for the patient is gastroesophageal reflux. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported? a. K21. b. K21.9, R07.9, K21. c. R07.9, R11. d. R07.9, R11.10, K21. ANS a. K21.

15. A 45 year-old female with malignant Mullerian duct cancer is receiving her

first treatment of chemotherapy. What diagnosis codes are reported? a. C79.82, Z51. b. C57.7, Z51. c. Z51.11, D28. d. Z51.11, C57. ANS d. Z51.11, C57.

16. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a patient is seen for manage- ment

of anemia due to malignancy, how is it reported?

a. Anemia is the only condition reported.

b. The malignancy is the only condition reported.

c. Anemia is reported first, followed by the code for the malignancy.

d. The malignancy is reported first, followed by the code for the anemia.

ANS d. The malignancy is reported first, followed by the code for the anemia.

17. What ICD-10-CM code is reported for a patient who is a habitual abuser of

cannabis? a. F12. b. F12. c. F12. d. F12.

ANS d. F12.

18. A patient presents to the ED with weakness on the left side and aphasia. Tests

are ordered and the patient is admitted with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a. I67. b. R53.1, R47. c. I63. d. I63. ANS d.

ANS d. T86.49, C80.2, C22.

21. What is NOT an example of active treatment for pathological fractures?

a. Surgical treatment

b. Emergency department encounter

c. Evaluation and treatment by a new provider

d. Cast change

ANS d. Cast change

22. A patient was admitted three weeks following a normal vaginal delivery with

a postpartum breast abscess. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? a. O91. b. O91.

c. N61. d. O91. ANS a. O91.

23. What is/are the external cause code(s) for a passenger involved in an MVA that

lost control on the highway and hit a guardrail? a. Y92. b. V47.6XXA c. V47.5XXA d. V47.6XXA, Y92. ANS a. Y92.

24. A 7 year-old female patient was seen in the emergency department after

being bitten by a dog. The child received treatment for the puncture wounds to her left leg. She also received a rabies vaccine because the dog was known to have rabies. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. S81.852A, Z20.3, Z23, W54.0XXA b. S81.812A, Z20.3, Z23, W54.0XXA c. S81.812A, A82.9, Z23, W54.0XXA d. S81.852A, Z23, W54.0XXA ANS a. S81.852A, Z20.3, Z23, W54.0XXA

25. A male patient is here for his chemotherapy for metastatic carcinoma of the

liver secondary to cancer of the right areola. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. C22.9, C50.019, Z51. b. Z51.11, C78.7, C50. c. Z51.11, C50.029, C78. d. C78.7, C50.021, Z51. ANS b. Z51.11, C78.7, C50. Rationale ANS ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.2.e.2 states that if a patient admission/en- counter is

reported for the sex of the patient. In this case the patient is a male resulting in a 5th character of 2. The 6th character is for laterality; 1 is for right. The complete code is C50.021 for primary cancer of the right male areola. When assigning breast cancer codes make sure to select for the correct sex of the patient. The secondary cancer is listed first because the chemotherapy is directed to the secondary site per ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.2.b. Verify code selection in the Tabular List.

26. What is the correct CPT® code for a complete, four-view, chest X-ray? a.

b. 71046 x 2 c. 71047 d. 71045 x 4 ANS a. 71048

27. How many days does it take CMS to implement HCPCS Level II Temporary

Codes that have been reported as added, changed or deleted?

a. 90

b. 30

c. 60

d. 365 ANS a. 90

28. What codes are voluntarily reported to payers, provide evidence-based

performance-measure data?

a. HCPCS Level II codes

b. CPT® Category I codes

c. CPT® Category III codes

d. CPT® Category II codes

ANS d. CPT® Category II codes

29. HCPCS Level II includes code ranges that consist of what type of codes?

a. Permanent national codes, miscellaneous codes and temporary national

codes

b. Permanent national codes, dental codes and category II codes

c. Category II codes, temporary national codes and miscellaneous codes

d. Dental codes, morphology codes, miscellaneous codes and permanent

national codes ANS a. Permanent national codes, miscellaneous codes and tempo- rary national codes

30. When procedures are "mandated" by third party payers, what modifier

would you use?

a. 52

b. 26

c. 76

d. 32 ANS d. 32

ANS The patient is an 82 year-old male with biopsy-proven basal cell carcinoma of his right lower eyelid extending to the upper part of the cheek. I marked the area for rhomboidal excision and I drew my planned rhomboid flap. The patient observed these markings in a mirror, he understood the surgery and agreed on the location and we proceeded. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE ANS The area was infiltrated with local anesthet- ic. The face was prepped and draped in sterile fashion. I excised the lesion as drawn into the subcutaneous fat. Hemostasis was achieved using Bovie cautery. Modified Mohs analysis showed the margin to be clear. I incised the rhomboid flap as drawn and elevated the flap with a full-thickness of subcutaneous fat. Hemostasis was achieved in the donor site, the Bovie

cautery was not used, hand held cautery was used. The flap was rotated into the defect. The donor site was closed and flap inset in layers using 5-0 Monocryl and 6-0 Prolene. The patient tolerated the procedure well. The total site measured 1. cm x 2.7 cm. What CPT® code(s) should be reported? a. 14040, 14060 b. 14060, 11643 c. 14060 d. 11643 ANS c. 14060

35. Operative Report

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS

ANS Congenital left breast deformity. POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS ANS Congenital left breast deformity. PROCEDURE PERFORMED ANS Placement of left breast implant using mentor catalog #, lot #, serial #, 425 cc smooth round moderate profile implant filled with 475 cc of normal saline for breast reconstruction. INDICATIONS FOR SURGERY ANS The patient is a 34 year-old female who ap- proximately 15 to 16 years ago had a left breast implant placed for breast reconstruction for her congenital deformity of the left breast. This implant ruptured and in late September 20XX, I performed a capsulectomy and ex- changed her ruptured implant for a new implant. About a week after surgery the patient developed an infection. Due to the infection, her implant had to be removed. The patient's infection has completely resolved and she is now ready to have her implant replaced. In the preoperative holding area, I marked her for the ideal position of this implant and performed a breast exam not showing a mass in either breast and no mass in

the pectoralis major muscle. A submuscular plane was developed through a lateral approach and the inferior and medial origin of the muscle was partially divided using the Bovie cautery. Meticulous hemostasis was achieved using Bovie cautery. There were no signs of infection nor were there any pockets of seroma fluid or hematoma. The wound was carefully inspected. Meticulous hemostasis was achieved. Gloves were changed. The implant was opened and air was evacuated. It was placed in the submuscular pocket and the wound was temporarily closed using a skin stapler. The implant was filled to its maximum volume of 475 cc of normal saline. The patient was sat up. I adjusted the volume and ultimately felt she needed a 475 cc implant for breast symmetry with her contralateral breast. Once I was satisfied with the position of the implant, the patient was placed supine. Gloves were changed again. The fill tube was removed and I then secured the filled valves digitally and the deepest layer of breast tissue was closed using 3-0 Vicryl in running suture and the skin was closed in three layers using 4-0 Monocryl, 5-0 Monocryl, and 5-0 Prolene. The wound was dressed with Xeroform and gauze. The patient tolerated the procedure well. She was taken to recovery in good condition. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 19325-LT, N64. b. 19342-LT, Q83. c. 19316-LT, N64. d. 19340-LT, Q83. ANS b. 19342-LT, Q83.

36. In ICD-10-CM, what classification system is used to report open fracture

classifications?

a. Muller AO classification of fractures

b. Danis-Weber classification

c. Gustilo classification for open fractures

d. PHF classification of fractures

ANS c. Gustilo classification for open fractures

37. A patient is given Xylocaine, a local anesthetic, by injection in the thigh

above the site to be biopsied. A small bore needle is then introduced into the muscle, about 3 inches deep, and a muscle biopsy is taken. What CPT® code is reported for this service? a. 20206 b. 27324 c. 20225 d. 20205 ANS a. 20206

humerus. The pins were cut off below skin level. The wound was closed with plain catgut subcutaneously and 5-0 nylon for the skin. Dressings and a long arm cast were applied. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 24577-RT, S42.451A b. 24579-RT, S42.451A c. 24579-RT, 29065-51-RT, S42.434B d. 24575-RT, S42.434B ANS c. 24579-RT, 29065-51-RT, S42.434B

41. What CPT® code is reported for open decortication and parietal pleurec-

tomy?

a. 32652 b. 32225 c. 32320 d. 32220 ANS c. 32320

42. A 65 year-old patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. Patient is

scheduled for a diagnostic VATS (Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery). Under general anesthesia he was placed in left lateral decubitus position and a thoracoscope was inserted through a port site. The VATS exploration immediately revealed a mass of the right upper lobe. A biopsy was performed and sent to pathology. Results from pathology revealed small cell carcinoma. The decision was made to perform VATS and remove the upper lobe of the right lung. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported? ANS 32663 Rationale ANS The patient started out with a diagnostic VATS but it became a surgical VATS when the upper lobe of the right lung was removed. According to CPT® guidelines a surgical thoracoscopy always includes a diagnostic thoracoscopy. You will not report 32607 or 32609 which are diagnostic VATS codes. The removal of the upper lobe was performed by VATS. Code 32480 is not correct because that is if the patient had an open surgery to remove the upper lobe.

43. A patient with AML (Acute Myelogenous Leukemia) has just learned his sister

is an HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) match for him. Stem cells taken from the donor (the patient's sister) will be transplanted into the patient to help with his treatment. What CPT® code is used to report the harvesting of the stem cells from the donor (his sister)? a. 38204 b. 38205 c. 38206