Download AAPC CPC Final Exam 2025: 196 Questions with Verified Solutions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
AAPC CPC Final Exam 2025 | 196 QUESTIONS
WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean? a. Staff members are allowed to access any medical record without restriction b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. c. Practices should only provide minimum necessary information to patients. d. All of the above. ✔✔b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. EHR stands for: a. Electronic health record b. Extended health record c. Electronic health response d. Established health record ✔✔a. Electronic health record The AAPC offers over 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of a. Continuing education and networking b. Membership dues c. Regulations and bylaws d. Financial management ✔✔a. Continuing education and networking What does the abbreviation MAC stand for?
a. Medicaid Alert Contractor b. Medicare Advisory Contractor c. Medicare Administrative Contractor d. Medicaid Administrative Contractor ✔✔c. Medicare Administrative Contractor The OIG recommends that provider practices enforce disciplinary actions through well publicized compliance guidelines to ensure actions that are. a. Permanent b. Consistent and appropriate c. Frequent d. Swift and enforceable ✔✔b. Consistent and appropriate Through which vessel is oxygenated blood returned to the heart from the lungs? a. Pulmonary vein b. Bronchial vein c. Pulmonary artery d. Bronchial artery ✔✔a. Pulmonary vein Muscle is attached to bone by what method? a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone c. Ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone d. Tendons and cartilage ✔✔b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following? a. Production of tears b. Production of vitreous
a. J10. b. A08. c. J11. d. J09.X2 ✔✔d. J09.X What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported for enlargement of the prostate with a symptom of urinary retention? a. N40. b. N40.3, R33. c. N40. d. N40.1, R33.8 ✔✔d. N40.1, R33. What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for behavioral disturbances in a patient with early onset Alzheimer's? a. G30.8, F02. b. F02. c. F02.81, G30. d. G30.0, F02.81 ✔✔d. G30.0, F02. What is the ICD- 10 - CM code for a patient with postoperative anemia due to acute blood loss during the surgery who needs a blood transfusion? a. D64. b. D53. c. D50. d. D62 ✔✔d. D A 54 - year-old male goes to his primary care provider with dizziness. On physical exam his blood pressure is 200/130. After a complete work-up, including laboratory tests, the
provider makes a diagnosis of end stage renal disease and hypertension. What are the appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter? a. I12.0, N18. b. I10, N18. c. I10, N18. d. I12.0 ✔✔a. I12.0, N18. A 32 - year-old male was seen in the ambulatory surgery center ASC for removal of two lipomas. One was located on his back and the other was located on the right forearm. Both involved subcutaneous tissue. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported? a. D17. b. D17. c. D17.1, D17. d. D17.21, D17.1 ✔✔d. D17.21, D17. A 33 - year-old patient visits his primary care provider to discuss a lap band procedure for his morbid obesity. His caloric intake is in excess of 4,000 calories per day and his BMI is currently 45. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported? a. E66.01, Z68. b. E66.3, Z68. c. E66. d. E66.01, Z68.45 ✔✔a. E66.01, Z68. A 58 - year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. F02.80, G30.0, F29, F41.
A 16-year-old male is brought to the ED by his mother. He was riding his bicycle in the park when he fell off the bike. The patient's right arm is painful to touch, discolored, and swollen. The X-ray shows a closed fracture of the ulna. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. S52.201A, V19.9XXA, Y92. b. S52.201A, V18.4XXA, Y92. c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92. d. S52.209A, V18.4XXA, Y92.830 ✔✔c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92. A 12-month-old receives the following vaccinations: Hepatitis B, Hib, Varicella, and Mumps-measles-rubella. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported for the vaccinations? a. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9, Z b. Z23, B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06. c. Z d. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9 ✔✔c. Z The Table of Drugs in the HCPCS Level II book indicates various medication routes of administration. What abbreviation represents the route where a drug is introduced into the subdural space of the spinal cord? a. IT b. SC c. IM d. INH ✔✔a. IT A patient is in the OR for an arthroscopy of the medial compartment of his left knee. A meniscectomy is performed. What is the correct code used to report for the anesthesia services?
a. 01400 b. 01402 c. 29880 - LT d. 29870 - LT ✔✔a. 01400 What is the correct CPT® code for a MRI performed on the brain first without contrast and then with contrast? a. 70554 b. 70553 c. 70552 d. 70551 ✔✔b. 70553 How are ambulance modifiers used? a. They identify the time elements of the ambulance service. b. They identify the mileage traveled during the encounter. c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. d. they identify emergency or non-emergency transport types. ✔✔c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. What is the correct CPT® code for the wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrown toenail? ✔✔ 11765 Rationale: In the CPT® Index, look for Excision/Nail Fold referring you to 11765. A patient is taken to surgery for removal of a squamous cell carcinoma of the right thigh. What is the correct diagnosis code for today's procedure? a. C44. b. C44. c. D79.
body. He observed this in the mirror so he could understand the surgery and agree on the location. I incised a thin ellipse over the mass to give better access to it; the mass was removed. There was a granuloma capsule around this, containing what appeared to be a black-colored piece of stained metal; I felt it could potentially cause a permanent black mark on his forehead. I offered to excise the metal. He wanted me ✔✔a. 10121, L92.3, Z18.10, Z85. In ICD- 10 - CM, what classification system is used to report open fracture classifications? a. Gustilo classification for open fractures b. PHF classification of fractures c. Danis-Weber classification d. Muller AO classification of fractures ✔✔a. Gustilo classification for open fractures A patient presented with a right ankle fracture. After induction of general anesthesia, the right leg was elevated and draped in the usual manner for surgery. A longitudinal incision was made parallel and posterior to the fibula. It was curved anteriorly to its distal end. The skin flap was developed and retracted anteriorly. The distal fibula fracture was then reduced and held with reduction forceps. A lag screw was inserted from anterior to posterior across the fracture. A 5-hole 1/3 tubular plate was then applied to the lateral contours of the fibula with cortical and cancellous bone screws. Final radiographs showed restoration of the fibula. The wound was irrigated and closed with suture and staples on the skin. Sterile dressing was applied followed by a posterior splint. What CPT® code is reported? a. 27823 - RT b. 27792 - RT c. 27814 - RT d. 27787 - RT ✔✔b. 27792 - RT
A 49-year-old female presented with chronic deQuervain's disease and has been unresponsive to physical therapy, bracing or cortisone injection. She has opted for more definitive treatment. After induction of anesthesia, the patient's left arm was prepared and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Local anesthetic was injected using a combination 2% lidocaine and 0.25% Marcaine. A transverse incision was made over the central area of the first dorsal compartment. The subcutaneous tissues were gently spread to protect the neural and venous structures. The retractors were placed. The fascial sheath of the first dorsal compartment was then incised and opened carefully. The underlying thumb abductor and extensor tendons were identified. The tissues were dissected and the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. The fibrotic tissue was incised and the tendons gently released. The tendons were fre ✔✔d. 25000 - LT Rationale: The report states the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. Look in CPT index for Incision/Wrist/Tendon Sheath 25000 - 25001. Code 25000 shows deQuervain's disease in the description. Modifier LT is appended to inciate procedure is performed on the left side. A 45-year-old presents to the operating room with a right index trigger finger and left shoulder bursitis. The left shoulder was injected with 1 cc of Xylocaine, 1 cc of Celestone and 1 cc of Marcaine. An approximately 1-inch incision was made over the A1 pulley in the distal transverse palmar crease. This incision was taken through skin and subcutaneous tissue. The A1 pulley was identified and released in its entirety. The wound was irrigated with antibiotic saline solution. The subcutaneous tissue was injected with Marcaine without epinephrine. The skin was closed with 4 - 0 Ethilon suture. Clean dressing was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 20553 - F6, 20610 - 51 - LT b. 20552 - F6, 20605 - 52 - LT
A patient with chronic pneumothoraces presents for chemopleurodesis. Under local anesthesia a small incision is made between the ribs. A catheter is inserted into the pleural space between the parietal and pleural viscera. Subsequently, 5g of sterile asbestos free talc was introduced into the pleural space via the catheter. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 32560, J93. b. 32650, 32560, J93. c. 32650, J95. d. 32601, 32560, J95.811 ✔✔a. 32560, J93. Response Feedback: Rationale:Chemopleurodesis is represented by codes 32560 - 32562. In the CPT® Index look for Pleurodesis/Instillation of Agent. Code 32560 is appropriate for the described actions taken to instill the talc used to treat recurrent pneumothorax. Look in the ICD- 10 - CM Alphabetic Index for Pneumothorax NOS/chronic which directs you to code J93.81. Verification in the Tabular List confirms code selection. A 25-year-old male presents with a deviated nasal septum. The patient undergoes a nasal septum repair and submucous resection. Cartilage from the bony septum was detached and the nasoseptum was realigned and removed in a piecemeal fashion. Thereafter, 4-0 chronic was used to approximate mucous membranes. Next, submucous resection of the turbinates was handled in the usual fashion by removing the anterior third of the bony turbinate and lateral mucosa followed by bipolar cauterization. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 30450, 30999 - 51 b. 30520, 30140 - 51
c. 30420, 30140 - 51 d. 30620, 30999 - 51 ✔✔b. 30520, 30140 - 51 Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones? a. Left b. Right c. Inverted d. Superficial ✔✔a. Left In the cath lab a physician places a catheter in the aortic arch from a right femoral artery puncture to perform an angiography. Fluoroscopic imaging is performed by the physician. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 36222 b. 36200, 75605 - 26 c. 36215, 75605 - 26 d. 36221 ✔✔d. 36211 Rationale: The aorta is the trunk of the system, so this is a non-selective catheterization. Look in CPT Index for Angiography/Cervicocerebral Arch. Only one code is reported for the catheterization and fluoroscopic imaging which is code 36221 Which statement is TRUE regarding codes for hypertension and heart disease in ICD- 10 - CM? A) Only one code is required to report hypertension and heart failure. B) Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. C) Hypertension and heart disease without a stated causal relationship must be coded separately.
C) Common bile duct D) Common hepatic duct ✔✔C) Common Bile Duct What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported for non-erosive duodenitis? a. K29. b. K29. c. K29. d. K29.91 ✔✔a. K29. A 57-year-old patient with chronic pancreatitis presents to the operating room for a pancreatic duct-jejunum anastomosis by the Puestow-type operation. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported for the encounter? a. 48548, K85. b. 48520, K86. c. 48520, K85. d. 48548, K86.1 ✔✔d. 48548, K86. The urologist is called to the operating room to repair a kidney laceration status post MVA. The urologist examines the kidney and repairs a small 2 cm laceration of the kidney. What CPT® code is reported for this service? a. 50525 b. 50520 c. 50500 d. 50526 ✔✔c. 50500 Transurethral resection of bladder neck and nodular prostatic regrowth. What CPT® code is reported for this service?
a. 55801 b. 52630 c. 52500 d. 52640 ✔✔b. 52630 Rationale: CPT 52630 is reported for a transurethral resection of residual or regrowth of the prostatic tissue. In the the CPT index look for Transurethral Procedure/Prostate/Resection. CPT 52500 is a separate procedure and considered an integral part of the prostate resection. CPT 52640 is used for the transurethral resection of a postoperative bladder neck contracture. A 63-year-old male presents for the insertion of an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urinary incontinence. A 4.5 cm cuff, 22 ml balloon, 61-70 mmHg artificial inflatable urinary sphincter was inserted. What CPT® code is reported for this service? ✔✔ 53445 Rationale: In the CPT® Index look for Insertion/Prosthesis/Urethral Sphincter. You're directed to 53444-53445. Codes 53446-53448 are for the removal or removal/replacement of the inflatable sphincter. CPT® 53445 describes the insertion of an inflatable urethra/bladder neck sphincter, including placement of pump, reservoir and cuff. The patient has significant morbid obesity and her pannus has been retracted to help with dissection. The planned procedure is to place a catheter/tube to drain the bladder. It is apparent she has quite a bit of scarring from her previous surgeries and appears to have an old sinus tract just above the symphysis. A midline incision is made following her old scar from just above the symphysis for a length of about 4-6cm. The sinus tract was excised, as this was also in the midline, and carefully dissected down to the level of the fascia. It does not appear to be an actual hernia, as there are no ventral contents within it. Again, there is quite a bit of distortion from previous scarring because of the obesity, but staying in the midline, the fascia is incised just above the symphysis of a
physician. She will return home for her postpartum care. What ICD- 10 - CM and CPT® codes are reported by the ED physician? a. 59409, O80, Z3A.26, Z37. b. 59409, 59414 - 51, 59300 - 51, O62.3, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37. c. 59414, 59300 - 51, O62.3, O70.9, Z3A.26, Z37. d. 59414, 59300 - 51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 ✔✔d. 59414, 59300 - 51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37. Migraines are reported from what category in ICD- 10 - CM? a) F b) G c) G d) G43 ✔✔d) G A patient with a status post (after or following) lumbar puncture headache receives an epidural blood patch. The patient's venous blood is injected into the lumbar epidural space; this blood forms a clot sealing the leak of CSF from the lumbar puncture. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 62273, G97. b. 62281, G44. c. 62282, G97. d. 62273, G44.1 ✔✔a. 62273, G97. What ICD- 10 - CM code is used for spinal meningitis? a. G03. b. A87. c. G04.
d. A39.9 ✔✔a. G03. A 47-year-old male presents with chronic back pain and lower left leg radiculitis. A laminectomy is performed on the inferior end of L5. The microscope is used to perform microdissection. There was a large extradural cystic structure on the right side underneath the nerve root as well as the left. The entire intraspinal lesion was evacuated. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this procedure? a. 63252, 69990 b. 63267, 69990 c. 63277 d. 63272 ✔✔b. 63267, 69990 What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported for mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy with macular edema? a. E11. b. E11. c. E11. d. E11.3199 ✔✔c. E11. The provider makes an incision in the patient's left tympanic membrane in order to inflate eustachian tubes and aspirate fluid in a patient with acute eustachian salpingitis. The procedure is completed without anesthesia. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 69421, H68. b. 69420, H68. c. 69421, H68. d. 69420, H68.022 ✔✔b. 69420, H68.
