Download AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM 2025 200 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ and more Quizzes Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM 2025
200 QUESTIONS WITH 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+ BRAND NEW!!
"A 54-year-old male goes to his primary care provider with dizziness. On physical exam his blood pressure is 200/130. After a complete work-up, including laboratory tests, the provider makes a diagnosis of end stage renal disease and hypertension. What are the appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter? a. I12.0, N18. b. I10, N18. c. I10, N18.
d. I12.0 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. I12.0, N18.6"
"A 32-year-old male was seen in the ambulatory surgery center ASC for removal of two lipomas. One was located on his back and the other was located on the right forearm. Both involved subcutaneous tissue. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a. D17. b. D17. c. D17.1, D17.
d. D17.21, D17.1 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. D17.21, D17.1"
"A 33-year-old patient visits his primary care provider to discuss a lap band procedure for his morbid obesity. His caloric intake is in excess of 4,000 calories per day and his BMI is currently 45. What ICD-10- CM code(s) is/are reported? a. E66.01, Z68. b. E66.3, Z68. c. E66.
d. E66.01, Z68.45 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. E66.01, Z68.42"
"A 58-year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. F02.80, G30.0, F29, F41. b. G30.0, F02. c. F02.80, G30.
d. G30.0, F02.80, F29, R41.3 - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. G30.0, F02.80"
"What would be considered an adverse effect? a. Shortness of breath when running b. Rash developing when taking penicillin c. Hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery
d. Wound infection after surgery - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. Rash developing when taking penicillin"
"What is a TRUE statement in reporting pressure ulcers? a. When a pressure ulcer is at on stage and progresses to the higher stage, report the lowest stage for that site. b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves to another stage during the admission. c. When documentation does not provide the stage of the pressure ulcer, report the unstageable pressure ulcer code(L89.95).
d. The site of the ulcer and the stage of the ulcer are reported with two separate codes. - CORRECT
ANSWER=> b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves to
another stage during the admission." "A child has a splinter under the right middle fingernail. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? a. S61.222A b. S61.227A c. S61.242A
d. S60.452A - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. S60.452A"
"A 16-year-old male is brought to the ED by his mother. He was riding his bicycle in the park when he fell off the bike. The patient's right arm is painful to touch, discolored, and swollen. The X-ray shows a closed fracture of the ulna. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. S52.201A, V19.9XXA, Y92. b. S52.201A, V18.4XXA, Y92. c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92.
d. S52.209A, V18.4XXA, Y92.830 - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92.830"
"A patient is taken to surgery for removal of a squamous cell carcinoma of the right thigh. What is the correct diagnosis code for today's procedure? a. C44. b. C44. c. D79.
d. C79.2 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. C44.722"
"In ICD-10-CM, what type of burn is considered corrosion? - CORRECT ANSWER=> Burns due to
chemicals" "Joe has a terrible problem with ingrown toenails. He goes to the podiatrist to have a nail permanently removed along with the nail matrix. What CPT® code is reported? a. 11720 b. 11730 c. 11750
d. 11765 - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. 11750"
"The patient is seen for removal of fatty tissue of the posterior iliac crest, abdomen, and the medial and lateral thighs. Suction-assisted lipectomy was undertaken in the left posterior iliac crest area and was continued on the right and the lateral trochanteric and posterior aspect of the medial thighs. The medial right and left thighs were suctioned followed by the abdomen. The total amount infused was 2300 cc and the total amount removed was 2400 cc. The incisions were closed and a compression garment was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 15877, 15878-50- b. 15877, 15879-50- c. 15830, 15839-50-51, 15847
d. 15830, 15832-50-51 - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. 15877, 15879-50-51"
"The patient is seen in follow-up for excision of the basal cell carcinoma of his nose. I examined his nose noting the wound has healed well. His pathology showed the margins were clear. He has a mass on his forehead; he says it is from a fragment of sheet metal from an injury to his forehead. He has an X-ray showing a foreign body, and we have offered to remove it. After obtaining consent we proceeded. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic. I had drawn for him how I would incise over the foreign body. He observed this in the mirror so he could understand the surgery and agree on the location. I incised a thin ellipse over the mass to give better access to it; the mass was removed. There was a granuloma capsule around this, containing what appeared to be a black-colored piece of stained metal; I felt it could potentially cause a permanent black mark on his forehead. I offered to excise the metal. He wanted me -
CORRECT ANSWER=> a. 10121, L92.3, Z18.10, Z85.828"
"In ICD-10-CM, what classification system is used to report open fracture classifications?
a. Gustilo classification for open fractures b. PHF classification of fractures c. Danis-Weber classification
d. Muller AO classification of fractures - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. Gustilo classification for open
fractures" "A patient presented with a right ankle fracture. After induction of general anesthesia, the right leg was elevated and draped in the usual manner for surgery. A longitudinal incision was made parallel and posterior to the fibula. It was curved anteriorly to its distal end. The skin flap was developed and retracted anteriorly. The distal fibula fracture was then reduced and held with reduction forceps. A lag screw was inserted from anterior to posterior across the fracture. A 5-hole 1/3 tubular plate was then applied to the lateral contours of the fibula with cortical and cancellous bone screws. Final radiographs showed restoration of the fibula. The wound was irrigated and closed with suture and staples on the skin. Sterile dressing was applied followed by a posterior splint. What CPT® code is reported? a. 27823-RT b. 27792-RT c. 27814-RT
d. 27787-RT - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. 27792-RT"
"A 49-year-old female presented with chronic deQuervain's disease and has been unresponsive to physical therapy, bracing or cortisone injection. She has opted for more definitive treatment. After induction of anesthesia, the patient's left arm was prepared and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Local anesthetic was injected using a combination 2% lidocaine and 0.25% Marcaine. A transverse incision was made over the central area of the first dorsal compartment. The subcutaneous tissues were gently spread to protect the neural and venous structures. The retractors were placed. The fascial sheath of the first dorsal compartment was then incised and opened carefully. The underlying thumb abductor and extensor tendons were identified. The tissues were dissected and the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. The fibrotic tissue was incised and the tendons gently released.
The tendons were fre - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. 25000-LT
Rationale: The report states the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. Look in CPT index for Incision/Wrist/Tendon Sheath 25000-25001. Code 25000 shows deQuervain's disease in the description. Modifier LT is appended to inciate procedure is performed on the left side." "A 45-year-old presents to the operating room with a right index trigger finger and left shoulder bursitis. The left shoulder was injected with 1 cc of Xylocaine, 1 cc of Celestone and 1 cc of Marcaine. An approximately 1-inch incision was made over the A1 pulley in the distal transverse palmar crease. This incision was taken through skin and subcutaneous tissue. The A1 pulley was identified and released in its entirety. The wound was irrigated with antibiotic saline solution. The subcutaneous tissue was injected
d. 32601, 32560, J95.811 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. 32560, J93.
Response Feedback: Rationale:Chemopleurodesis is represented by codes 32560-32562. In the CPT® Index look for Pleurodesis/Instillation of Agent. Code 32560 is appropriate for the described actions taken to instill the talc used to treat recurrent pneumothorax. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Pneumothorax NOS/chronic which directs you to code J93.81. Verification in the Tabular List confirms code selection." "A 25-year-old male presents with a deviated nasal septum. The patient undergoes a nasal septum repair and submucous resection. Cartilage from the bony septum was detached and the nasoseptum was realigned and removed in a piecemeal fashion. Thereafter, 4-0 chronic was used to approximate mucous membranes. Next, submucous resection of the turbinates was handled in the usual fashion by removing the anterior third of the bony turbinate and lateral mucosa followed by bipolar cauterization. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 30450, 30999- b. 30520, 30140- c. 30420, 30140-
d. 30620, 30999-51 - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. 30520, 30140-51"
"Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones? a. Left b. Right c. Inverted
d. Superficial - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. Left"
"In the cath lab a physician places a catheter in the aortic arch from a right femoral artery puncture to perform an angiography. Fluoroscopic imaging is performed by the physician. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 36222 b. 36200, 75605- c. 36215, 75605-
d. 36221 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. 36211
Rationale: The aorta is the trunk of the system, so this is a non-selective catheterization. Look in CPT Index for Angiography/Cervicocerebral Arch. Only one code is reported for the catheterization and fluoroscopic imaging which is code 36221" "Which statement is TRUE regarding codes for hypertension and heart disease in ICD-10-CM?
A) Only one code is required to report hypertension and heart failure. B) Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. C) Hypertension and heart disease without a stated causal relationship must be coded separately.
D) Hypertension with heart disease is always coded to heart failure. - CORRECT ANSWER=> B)
Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. Rationale: ICD-10-CM Coding Guidelines I.C.9.a states a causal relationship is presumed between hypertension and heart involvement. Only if the documentation specifically states they are unrelated, are they to be coded separately. ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.9.a.1 indicates two codes are required to report hypertension and heart failure." "A patient presents for extremity venous study. Complete noninvasive physiologic studies of both lower
extremities were performed. Which CPT® code is reported? - CORRECT ANSWER=> 93970
Rationale: Code 93970 reports a complete bilateral noninvasive physiologic study of extremity veins. This study is found in the CPT® Index by looking for Vascular Studies/Venous Studies/Extremity which directs you to 93970-93971. Modifier 50 is not appended because the term bilateral is included in the code description for 93970." "When reporting an encounter for screening of malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract, what does the 5th character indicate? A) History of malignancy in the intestinal tract B) Laterality of the intestinal tract C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract D) Screening codes for malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract are only reported with four
characters. - CORRECT ANSWER=> C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract"
"Bile empties into the duodenum through what structure? A) Pyloric sphincter B) Biliary artery C) Common bile duct
D) Common hepatic duct - CORRECT ANSWER=> C) Common Bile Duct"
"What ICD-10-CM code is reported for non-erosive duodenitis? a. K29. b. K29. c. K29.
d. K29.91 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. K29.80"
A midline incision is made following her old scar from just above the symphysis for a length of about 4- 6cm. The sinus tract was excised, as this was also in the midline, and carefully dissected down to the level of the fascia. It does not appear to be an actual hernia, as there are no ventral contents within it. Again, there is quite a bit of distortion from previous scarring because of the obesity, but staying in the midline, the fascia is incised just above the symphysis of a length of about 2cm. The fat and scar are
incised above the fascia more superiorly and with palpation, mesh from a previous hernia r - CORRECT
ANSWER=> a. 51040-53"
"What does the abbreviation VBAC mean? - CORRECT ANSWER=> Vaginal Birth After Cesarean"
"A patient is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her 30-week pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia during her previous pregnancy which puts her at risk for a recurrence of the problem during this pregnancy. No problems develop. What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for these three extra visits? a. O09.893, Z3A. b. O14.03, Z3A. c. Z34.
d. Z34.83, O09.893, Z3A.30 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. O09.893, Z3A.30"
"A pregnant patient presents to the ED with bleeding, cramping, and concerns of loss of tissue and material per vagina. On examination, the physician discovers an open cervical os with no products of conception seen. He tells the patient she has had an abortion. What type of abortion has she had? a. Missed b. Induced c. Spontaneous
d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. Spontaneous"
"Mrs. Smith is visiting her mother and is 150 miles away from home. She is in the 26th week of pregnancy. In the late afternoon she suddenly feels a gush of fluids followed by strong uterine contractions. She is rushed to the hospital but the baby is born before they arrive. In the ED she and the baby are examined and the retained placenta is delivered. The baby is in the neonatal nursery doing okay. Mrs. Smith has a 2nd degree perineal laceration secondary to precipitous delivery which was repaired by the ED physician. She will return home for her postpartum care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT® codes are reported by the ED physician? a. 59409, O80, Z3A.26, Z37. b. 59409, 59414-51, 59300-51, O62.3, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37. c. 59414, 59300-51, O62.3, O70.9, Z3A.26, Z37.
d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0,
O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0"
"Migraines are reported from what category in ICD-10-CM?
a) F b) G c) G
d) G43 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d) G43"
"A patient with a status post (after or following) lumbar puncture headache receives an epidural blood patch. The patient's venous blood is injected into the lumbar epidural space; this blood forms a clot sealing the leak of CSF from the lumbar puncture. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 62273, G97. b. 62281, G44. c. 62282, G97.
d. 62273, G44.1 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. 62273, G97.1"
"What ICD-10-CM code is used for spinal meningitis? a. G03. b. A87. c. G04.
d. A39.9 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. G03.9"
"A 47-year-old male presents with chronic back pain and lower left leg radiculitis. A laminectomy is performed on the inferior end of L5. The microscope is used to perform microdissection. There was a large extradural cystic structure on the right side underneath the nerve root as well as the left. The entire intraspinal lesion was evacuated. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this procedure? a. 63252, 69990 b. 63267, 69990 c. 63277
d. 63272 - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. 63267, 69990"
"What ICD-10-CM code is reported for mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy with macular edema? a. E11. b. E11. c. E11.
d. E11.3199 - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. E11.3219"
"The provider makes an incision in the patient's left tympanic membrane in order to inflate eustachian tubes and aspirate fluid in a patient with acute eustachian salpingitis. The procedure is completed without anesthesia. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 69421, H68.
d. I25.119 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. I25.118"
"A patient presents to the OR for a craniotomy with evacuation of a hematoma. What CPT® coding is reported for the anesthesiologist's services? a. 00210 b. 61312 c. 61314
d. 00211 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. 00211"
"An anesthesiologist is medically supervising six cases concurrently. What modifier is reported for the anesthesiologist's service? a. QX b. QK c. AA
d. AD - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. AD"
"A patient arrives at the urgent care facility with a swollen ankle. Anteroposterior and lateral view X-rays of the ankle are taken to determine whether the patient has a fractured ankle. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 73600 X 2 b. 73610 c. 73600, 73610
d. 73600 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. 73600"
"A 32-year-old patient with cervical cancer is in an outpatient facility to have HDR brachytherapy. The cervix is dilated and under ultrasound guidance six applicators are inserted with iridium via the vagina to release its radiation dose. The placement is in the cervical cavity (intracavitary). What CPT® code is
reported for the physician service? - CORRECT ANSWER=> 77762-
Response Feedback: Rationale: Patient is receiving a type of internal radiation therapy delivering a high dose of radiation (HDR) from implants (applicators with the iridium) placed via the vaginal cavity (intracavitary). This is found in the CPT® Index by looking for Brachytherapy/Intracavitary Application directing you to 0395T, 77761-77763. The CPT® subsection guidelines under the heading Clinical Brachytherapy, definitions are given to differentiate simple, intermediate and complex brachytherapy. Code 77762 is reported for the intracavitary application of five to 10 sources (intermediate); six applicators were used for this procedure making 77762 the correct code." "A patient who may have a stricture of the artery is undergoing an aortogram in which the left femoral artery was cannulated with a catheter advanced into the infrarenal abdominal aorta. Contrast medium was injected, and films taken by serialography showing the aortoiliac inflow vessels were widely patent.
The bilateral common femoral arteries appear normal. What CPT® codes are reported for the professional component? a. 36200, 75625- b. 36200, 75805- c. 36200, 75630-
d. 36200, 75635-26 - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. 36200, 75630-26"
"Myocardial Perfusion Imaging (MPI)—Office Based TestIndications: Chest pain.Procedure: Resting tomographic myocardial perfusion images were obtained following injection of 10 mCi of intravenous Cardiolite. At peak exercise, 30 mCi of intravenous Cardiolite was injected, and post-stress tomographic myocardial perfusion images were obtained. Post stress gated images of the left ventricle were also acquired. Myocardial perfusion images were compared in the standard fashion.Findings: This is a technically fair study. There was no stress induced electrocardiographic changes noted. There were no significant reversible or fixed perfusion defects noted. Gated images of the left ventricle reveal normal left ventricular volumes, normal left ventricular wall motion, and an estimated left ventricular ejection fraction of 50%.Impression: No evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Normal left ventricular
ejection fraction. - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. 78452"
"HCPCS Level II codes specifically for Pathology and Laboratory services all start with what letter? a. G b. A c. P
d. Q - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. P"
"A physician orders a General Health Panel, all tests except a creatinine, including CBC with automated differential. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 80050- b. 85025, 84443, 82040, 82247, 82310, 82374, 82435, 82947, 84075, 84132, 84155, 84295, 84460, 84450, 84520 c. 80050
d. 80050-22 - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. 85025, 84443, 82040, 82247, 82310, 82374, 82435, 82947,
"What diagnosis codes are reported for metastatic adenocarcinoma to the lungs from an unknown primary location? a. D49.1, D49. b. D02.21, D02.22, C34. c. C78.01, C78.02, C80.
d. C34.90, C80.1 - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. C78.01, C78.02, C80.1"
exam. Abdominal ultrasound is ordered and the patient has mild appendicitis. The provider prescribes antibiotics to treat the appendicitis in hopes of avoiding an appendectomy. What are the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for this encounter? a. 99213, K37, R b. 99202, R10.31, K c. 99203, K
d. 99203, R50.9, R12, R10.31, K37 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. 99213, K37, R12"
"A child with suspected sleep apnea was given an apnea monitoring device to use over the next month. The device was capable of recording and storing data relative to heart and respiratory rate and pattern. The pediatric pulmonologist reviewed the data and reported to the child's primary pediatrician. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the monitor attachment, download of data, provider review, interpretation and report? a. 94775, 94776, 94777 b. 95800 c. 95806
d. 94774 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. 94774"
"A 5 week old infant shows signs of fatigue after eating and has poor weight gain. He is suspected to have a congenital heart defect. The neonatologist ordered a transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE). TTE is showing a shunt between the right and left ventricles. The neonatologist read and interpreted the study and indicated the patient has a ventricular septal defect (VSD). What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for the TTE read? a. 93303-26, Q21. b. 93312-26, Q21. c. 93312, I51.
d. 93303, I51.0 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. 93303-26, Q21.0"
"A teenager has been chronically depressed since the separation of her parents 1 year ago and moving to a new city. Her school grades continued to slip and she has not made new friends. She has frequent crying episodes and is no longer interested in her appearance. She has attended the community mental health center and participates in group sessions. Recently her depression exacerbated to the point inpatient admission was required. The provider diagnosed adjustment disorder with emotional and conduct disturbances. Due to the length of the depression and no real improvement, the provider discussed electroconvulsive therapy with her mother. After discussing benefits and risks, the mother consented to the procedure. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for the electroconvulsive therapy? a. 90882, F43. b. 90870, F43. c. 90870, F43.24, F43.
d. 90867, F43.24, F43.25 - CORRECT ANSWER=> b. 90870, F43.25"
"A patient with hypertensive end stage renal failure, stage 5, and secondary hyperparathyroidism is evaluated by the provider and receives peritoneal dialysis. The provider evaluates the patient once before dialysis begins. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 90947, I12.0, N25. b. 90945, I10, N18.5, Z99.2, N25. c. 90945, I12.0, N18.6, Z99.2, N25.
d. 90947, I12.0, N18.5, Z99.2 - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. 90945, I12.0, N18.6, Z99.2, N25.81"
"PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS : Heart BlockPOSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Heart BlockANESTHESIA: Local anesthesiaNAME OF PROCEDURE: Reimplantation of dual chamber pacemakerDESCRIPTION: The chest was prepped with Betadine and draped in the usual sterile fashion. Local anesthesia was obtained by infiltration of 1% Xylocaine. A subfascial incision was made about 2.5 cm below the clavicle, and the old pulse generator was removed. Using the Seldinger technique, the subclavian vein was cannulated and through this, the old atrial lead was removed, and a new atrial lead (serial # 6662458) was placed in the right atrium and to the atrial septum. Thresholds were obtained as follows: The P-wave was 1. millivolts, atrial threshold was 1.6 millivolts with a resultant current of 3.5 mA and resistance of 467 ohms.Using a second subclavian stick in the Seldinger technique, the old ventricular lead was removed
and a new ventricular lead (serial - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. 33235, 33208-51, 33233-51"
"Operative Report PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:Prolapsed vitreous in anterior chamber with corneal edema POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:Same OPERATION PERFORMED:Anterior vitrectomy The patient is a 72-year-old woman who approximately 10 months ago underwent cataract surgery with a YAG laser capsulotomy, developed corneal edema and required a corneal transplant. The patient has done well. Over the last few weeks, she developed posterior vitreous detachment with vitreous prolapse to the opening in the posterior capsule with vitreous into the anterior chamber with corneal touch and adhesion to the graft host junction and early corneal edema. The patient is admitted for anterior vitrectomy.PROCEDURE: The patient was prepped and draped in the usual manner after first undergoing retrobulbar anesthetic. A lid speculum was inserted. An incision was made at approximately the 10
o'clock meridian 3 mm in length, 2 mm posterior to the limbus, - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. 67010"
"Operative Report Indications: This is a third follow-up EGD dilation on this 40-year-old patient for a pyloric channel ulcer which has been slow to heal with resulting pyloric stricture. This is a repeat evaluation and dilation. Medications: Intravenous Versed 2 mg. Posterior pharyngeal Cetacaine spray. Procedure: With the patient in the left lateral decubitus position, the Olympus GIFXQ10 was inserted into the proximal esophagus and advanced to the Z-line. The esophageal mucosa was unremarkable. Stomach was entered revealing normal gastric mucosa. Mild erythema was seen in the antrum. The pyloric channel was again widened. The ulcer, as previously seen, was well healed with a scar. The pyloric stricture was still present. With some probing, the 11 mm endoscope could be introduced into the
small, less than 5 cm, and laser is used to ablate them, except the ovarian cyst, which is excised. During the procedure the patient also has a tubal ligation. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported for this service? a. 49203, 58611, N80.1, N80.2, N80.3, Z30. b. 58662, 58600-51, N80.1, N80.2, N80.3, Z30. c. 49203, 58671-51, N80.
d. 49000, 58662-51, 58925-51, 58671-51, N80.1, N80.2, N80.3, Z30.2 - CORRECT ANSWER=> a. 49203,
58611, N80.1, N80.2, N80.3, Z30.2"
"Preoperative Diagnosis: Left orbital cyst, hemangioma versus lymphangioma Postoperative Diagnosis: Left orbital cyst, hemangioma versus lymphangioma Procedures Performed: Aspiration of left orbital cyst with injection of Kenalog Anesthesia: General Complications: None Estimated Blood Loss: Minimal Indications for Procedure: The patient presents with a small cyst of the superior medial left orbit felt to be suggestive for hemangioma versus lymphangioma. Risks, benefits, and alternatives of steroid injection to inactivate the cyst were reviewed. These risks included failure to work and significant visual loss. After discussion, they elected to proceed. Description of Procedure: After informed operative consent was obtained, the patient was brought to the operating room and laid in the supine position. General anesthetic was administered per the
anesthesiologist. A 25-gauge needle on a 5-cc syringe was placed within the - CORRECT ANSWER=> d.
67415-LT, H05.
Rationale: The provider aspirated a cyst that was in the left orbit. In the CPT index look for Aspiration/Orbital Contents referring you to code 67415. Code 67500 is reported when there is an injection of a therapeutic or local anesthetic behind the eyeball(retrobulbar). Diagnoses documented as versus are not definitive diagnosis codes and are not coded. The postoperative header indicates and orbital cyst. In the ICD-10- CM alphabetical index look for Cyst/orbit referring you to code H05.81. Verify code in the Tabular List. A 6th character is required to indicate which eye; 2 is reported for the left eye." "PROCEDURES PERFORMED:
- Bilateral facet joint injections, L4-L
- Bilateral facet joint injections, L5-S1.
- Fluoroscopy. TECHNIQUE: The AP view was aligned with the proper tilt so that the end plates for the desired levels were perpendicular. The AP image showed the sacrum and the L5 spinous process. Manual palpation located the sacral hiatus. The 6-inch, 20-gauge needle with a slight volar bend was inserted using fluoroscopy into each facet joint under AP image. The bilateral L4-L5, and L5-S1 facet joints were injected in a systematic fashion from caudal to cranial. A sterile dressing was applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well with no complications and was transferred to recovery in good condition. What CPT® codes are reported?
a. 64493-50 x 2 b. 64493-50, 64494-50-51, 77002- c. 64493-50, 64494 x 2, 77002-
d. 64493-50, 64494 x 2 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. 64493-50, 64494 x 2"
"A 65-year-old was admitted in the hospital two days ago and is being examined today by his primary care physician, who has been seeing him since he has been admitted. Primary care physician is checking for any improvements or if the condition is worsening. CHIEF COMPLAINT: CHF INTERVAL HISTORY: CHF symptoms worsened since yesterday. Now has some resting dyspnea. HTN remains poorly controlled with systolic pressure running in the 160s. Also, I'm concerned about his CKD, which has worsened, most likely due to cardio-renal syndrome. REVIEW OF SYSTEMS: Positive for orthopnea and one episode of PND. Negative for flank pain, obstructive symptoms or documented exposure to nephrotoxins. PHYSICAL EXAMINATION: GENERAL: Mild respiratory distress at rest VITAL SIGNS: BP 168/84, HR 58, temperature 98.1. LUNGS: Worsening bibasilar crackles CARDIOVASCULAR: RRR, no MRGs. EXTREMITIES: Show worsening lower extremity edema.
LABS: BUN 5 - CORRECT ANSWER=> d. Subsequent Hospital Visit (99231-99233)"
"Operative Report: Pre-Operative Diagnoses: Basal Cell Carcinoma, forehead Basal Cell Carcinoma, right cheek Suspicious lesion, left nose Suspicious lesion, left forehead Post-Operative Diagnoses: Basal Cell Carcinoma, forehead with clear margins Basal Cell Carcinoma, right cheek with clear margins Compound nevus, left nose with clear margins Epidermal nevus, left forehead with clear margins INDICATIONS FOR SURGERY: The patient is a 47-year-old white man with a biopsy proven basal cell carcinoma of his forehead and a biopsy proven basal cell carcinoma of his right cheek. We were not quite sure of the patient's location of the basal cell carcinoma of the forehead whether it was a midline lesion or lesion to the left. We felt stronger about the midline lesion, so we marked the area for elliptical excision in relaxed skin tension lines of his forehead with gross normal margins of 1-2 mm and I marked
the lesion of the le - CORRECT ANSWER=> c. C44.319, D22.39"
"What type of insurance is Medicare Part D? a. Hospital coverage available to all Medicare beneficiaries.
