Download AAPC CPC Final Exam 2024-2025 with correct answers Latest version and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
AAPC CPC Final Exam 2024-2025 with
correct answers Latest version
The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean? a. Staff members are allowed to access any medical record without restriction b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. c. Practices should only provide minimum necessary information to patients. d. All of the above. - correct answer - b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. EHR stands for: a. Electronic health record b. Extended health record c. Electronic health response d. Established health record - correct answer - a. Electronic health record The AAPC offers over 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of a. Continuing education and networking b. Membership dues c. Regulations and bylaws d. Financial management - correct answer - a. Continuing education and networking What does the abbreviation MAC stand for?
a. Medicaid Alert Contractor b. Medicare Advisory Contractor c. Medicare Administrative Contractor d. Medicaid Administrative Contractor - correct answer - c. Medicare Administrative Contractor The OIG recommends that provider practices enforce disciplinary actions through well publicized compliance guidelines to ensure actions that are ______. a. Permanent b. Consistent and appropriate c. Frequent d. Swift and enforceable - correct answer - b. Consistent and appropriate Through which vessel is oxygenated blood returned to the heart from the lungs? a. Pulmonary vein b. Bronchial vein c. Pulmonary artery d. Bronchial artery - correct answer - a. Pulmonary vein Muscle is attached to bone by what method? a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone c. Ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone d. Tendons and cartilage - correct answer - b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following?
What is the ICD- 10 - CM code for swine flu? a. J10. b. A08. c. J11. d. J09.X2 - correct answer - d. J09.X What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported for enlargement of the prostate with a symptom of urinary retention? a. N40. b. N40.3, R33. c. N40. d. N40.1, R33.8 - correct answer - d. N40.1, R33. What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for behavioral disturbances in a patient with early onset Alzheimer's? a. G30.8, F02. b. F02. c. F02.81, G30. d. G30.0, F02.81 - correct answer - d. G30.0, F02. What is the ICD- 10 - CM code for a patient with postoperative anemia due to acute blood loss during the surgery who needs a blood transfusion? a. D64. b. D53. c. D50.
d. D62 - correct answer - d. D A 54-year-old male goes to his primary care provider with dizziness. On physical exam his blood pressure is 200/130. After a complete work-up, including laboratory tests, the provider makes a diagnosis of end stage renal disease and hypertension. What are the appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter? a. I12.0, N18. b. I10, N18. c. I10, N18. d. I12.0 - correct answer - a. I12.0, N18. A 32-year-old male was seen in the ambulatory surgery center ASC for removal of two lipomas. One was located on his back and the other was located on the right forearm. Both involved subcutaneous tissue. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported? a. D17. b. D17. c. D17.1, D17. d. D17.21, D17.1 - correct answer - d. D17.21, D17. A 33-year-old patient visits his primary care provider to discuss a lap band procedure for his morbid obesity. His caloric intake is in excess of 4,000 calories per day and his BMI is currently 45. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported? a. E66.01, Z68. b. E66.3, Z68. c. E66. d. E66.01, Z68.45 - correct answer - a. E66.01, Z68. A 58-year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported?
d. S60.452A - correct answer - d. S60.452A A 16-year-old male is brought to the ED by his mother. He was riding his bicycle in the park when he fell off the bike. The patient's right arm is painful to touch, discolored, and swollen. The X-ray shows a closed fracture of the ulna. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. S52.201A, V19.9XXA, Y92. b. S52.201A, V18.4XXA, Y92. c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92. d. S52.209A, V18.4XXA, Y92.830 - correct answer - c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92. A 12-month-old receives the following vaccinations: Hepatitis B, Hib, Varicella, and Mumps-measles- rubella. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported for the vaccinations? a. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9, Z b. Z23, B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06. c. Z d. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9 - correct answer - c. Z The Table of Drugs in the HCPCS Level II book indicates various medication routes of administration. What abbreviation represents the route where a drug is introduced into the subdural space of the spinal cord? a. IT b. SC c. IM d. INH - correct answer - a. IT A patient is in the OR for an arthroscopy of the medial compartment of his left knee. A meniscectomy is performed. What is the correct code used to report for the anesthesia services?
a. 01400 b. 01402 c. 29880-LT d. 29870-LT - correct answer - a. 01400 What is the correct CPT® code for a MRI performed on the brain first without contrast and then with contrast? a. 70554 b. 70553 c. 70552 d. 70551 - correct answer - b. 70553 How are ambulance modifiers used? a. They identify the time elements of the ambulance service. b. They identify the mileage traveled during the encounter. c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. d. they identify emergency or non-emergency transport types. - correct answer - c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. What is the correct CPT® code for the wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrown toenail? - correct answer - 11765 Rationale: In the CPT® Index, look for Excision/Nail Fold referring you to 11765. A patient is taken to surgery for removal of a squamous cell carcinoma of the right thigh. What is the correct diagnosis code for today's procedure? a. C44. b. C44.
could potentially cause a permanent black mark on his forehead. I offered to excise the metal. He wanted me - correct answer - a. 10121, L92.3, Z18.10, Z85. In ICD- 10 - CM, what classification system is used to report open fracture classifications? a. Gustilo classification for open fractures b. PHF classification of fractures c. Danis-Weber classification d. Muller AO classification of fractures - correct answer - a. Gustilo classification for open fractures A patient presented with a right ankle fracture. After induction of general anesthesia, the right leg was elevated and draped in the usual manner for surgery. A longitudinal incision was made parallel and posterior to the fibula. It was curved anteriorly to its distal end. The skin flap was developed and retracted anteriorly. The distal fibula fracture was then reduced and held with reduction forceps. A lag screw was inserted from anterior to posterior across the fracture. A 5-hole 1/3 tubular plate was then applied to the lateral contours of the fibula with cortical and cancellous bone screws. Final radiographs showed restoration of the fibula. The wound was irrigated and closed with suture and staples on the skin. Sterile dressing was applied followed by a posterior splint. What CPT® code is reported? a. 27823-RT b. 27792-RT c. 27814-RT d. 27787-RT - correct answer - b. 27792-RT A 49-year-old female presented with chronic deQuervain's disease and has been unresponsive to physical therapy, bracing or cortisone injection. She has opted for more definitive treatment. After induction of anesthesia, the patient's left arm was prepared and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Local anesthetic was injected using a combination 2% lidocaine and 0.25% Marcaine. A transverse incision was made over the central area of the first dorsal compartment. The subcutaneous tissues were gently spread to protect the neural and venous structures. The retractors were placed. The fascial sheath of the first dorsal compartment was then incised and opened carefully. The underlying thumb abductor and extensor tendons were identified. The tissues were dissected and the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. The fibrotic tissue was incised and the tendons gently released. The tendons were fre - correct answer - d. 25000-LT
Rationale: The report states the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. Look in CPT index for Incision/Wrist/Tendon Sheath 25000-25001. Code 25000 shows deQuervain's disease in the description. Modifier LT is appended to inciate procedure is performed on the left side. A 45-year-old presents to the operating room with a right index trigger finger and left shoulder bursitis. The left shoulder was injected with 1 cc of Xylocaine, 1 cc of Celestone and 1 cc of Marcaine. An approximately 1-inch incision was made over the A1 pulley in the distal transverse palmar crease. This incision was taken through skin and subcutaneous tissue. The A1 pulley was identified and released in its entirety. The wound was irrigated with antibiotic saline solution. The subcutaneous tissue was injected with Marcaine without epinephrine. The skin was closed with 4-0 Ethilon suture. Clean dressing was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 20553-F6, 20610- 51 - LT b. 20552-F6, 20605- 52 - LT c. 26055-F6, 20610- 76 - LT d. 26055-F6, 20610- 51 - LT - correct answer - d. 26055-F6, 20610- 51 - LT A 3-year-old is brought into the ED crying. He cannot bend his left arm after his older brother twisted it. X-ray is performed and the ED physician diagnoses the patient has a dislocated nursemaid elbow. The ED physician reduces the elbow successfully. The patient is able to move his arm again. The patient is referred to an orthopedist for follow-up care. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 24640- 54 - LT, S53.091A, W50.2XXA b. 24600- 54 - LT, S53.002A, W49.9XXA c. 24640- 54 - LT, S53.032A, W50.2XXA d.24565- 54 - LT, S53.194S, Y33.XXXA - correct answer - c. 24640- 54 - LT, S53.032A, W50.2XXA What CPT® code is reported for an emergency endotracheal intubation to save the patient's life? - correct answer - 31500 Rationale: In the CPT® Index, look for Intubation/Endotracheal Tube. This directs you to code 31500, which is for an emergency endotracheal intubation.
A 25-year-old male presents with a deviated nasal septum. The patient undergoes a nasal septum repair and submucous resection. Cartilage from the bony septum was detached and the nasoseptum was realigned and removed in a piecemeal fashion. Thereafter, 4- 0 chronic was used to approximate mucous membranes. Next, submucous resection of the turbinates was handled in the usual fashion by removing the anterior third of the bony turbinate and lateral mucosa followed by bipolar cauterization. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 30450, 30999- 51 b. 30520, 30140- 51 c. 30420, 30140- 51 d. 30620, 30999- 51 - correct answer - b. 30520, 30140- 51 Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones? a. Left b. Right c. Inverted d. Superficial - correct answer - a. Left In the cath lab a physician places a catheter in the aortic arch from a right femoral artery puncture to perform an angiography. Fluoroscopic imaging is performed by the physician. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 36222 b. 36200, 75605- 26 c. 36215, 75605- 26 d. 36221 - correct answer - d. 36211 Rationale: The aorta is the trunk of the system, so this is a non-selective catheterization. Look in CPT Index for Angiography/Cervicocerebral Arch. Only one code is reported for the catheterization and fluoroscopic imaging which is code 36221
Which statement is TRUE regarding codes for hypertension and heart disease in ICD- 10 - CM? A) Only one code is required to report hypertension and heart failure. B) Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. C) Hypertension and heart disease without a stated causal relationship must be coded separately. D) Hypertension with heart disease is always coded to heart failure. - correct answer - B) Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. Rationale: ICD- 10 - CM Coding Guidelines I.C.9.a states a causal relationship is presumed between hypertension and heart involvement. Only if the documentation specifically states they are unrelated, are they to be coded separately. ICD- 10 - CM guideline I.C.9.a.1 indicates two codes are required to report hypertension and heart failure. A patient presents for extremity venous study. Complete noninvasive physiologic studies of both lower extremities were performed. Which CPT® code is reported? - correct answer - 93970 Rationale: Code 93970 reports a complete bilateral noninvasive physiologic study of extremity veins. This study is found in the CPT® Index by looking for Vascular Studies/Venous Studies/Extremity which directs you to 93970-93971. Modifier 50 is not appended because the term bilateral is included in the code description for 93970. When reporting an encounter for screening of malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract, what does the 5th character indicate? A) History of malignancy in the intestinal tract B) Laterality of the intestinal tract C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract D) Screening codes for malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract are only reported with four characters. - correct answer - C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract Bile empties into the duodenum through what structure?
Transurethral resection of bladder neck and nodular prostatic regrowth. What CPT® code is reported for this service? a. 55801 b. 52630 c. 52500 d. 52640 - correct answer - b. 52630 Rationale: CPT 52630 is reported for a transurethral resection of residual or regrowth of the prostatic tissue. In the the CPT index look for Transurethral Procedure/Prostate/Resection. CPT 52500 is a separate procedure and considered an integral part of the prostate resection. CPT 52640 is used for the transurethral resection of a postoperative bladder neck contracture. A 63-year-old male presents for the insertion of an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urinary incontinence. A 4.5 cm cuff, 22 ml balloon, 61-70 mmHg artificial inflatable urinary sphincter was inserted. What CPT® code is reported for this service? - correct answer - 53445 Rationale: In the CPT® Index look for Insertion/Prosthesis/Urethral Sphincter. You're directed to 53444-
- Codes 53446-53448 are for the removal or removal/replacement of the inflatable sphincter. CPT® 53445 describes the insertion of an inflatable urethra/bladder neck sphincter, including placement of pump, reservoir and cuff. The patient has significant morbid obesity and her pannus has been retracted to help with dissection. The planned procedure is to place a catheter/tube to drain the bladder. It is apparent she has quite a bit of scarring from her previous surgeries and appears to have an old sinus tract just above the symphysis. A midline incision is made following her old scar from just above the symphysis for a length of about 4- 6cm. The sinus tract was excised, as this was also in the midline, and carefully dissected down to the level of the fascia. It does not appear to be an actual hernia, as there are no ventral contents within it. Again, there is quite a bit of distortion from previous scarring because of the obesity, but staying in the midline, the fascia is incised just above the symphysis of a length of about 2cm. The fat and scar are incised above the fascia more superiorly and with palpation, mesh from a previous hernia r - correct answer - a. 51040- 53 What does the abbreviation VBAC mean? - correct answer - Vaginal Birth After Cesarean
A patient is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her 30-week pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia during her previous pregnancy which puts her at risk for a recurrence of the problem during this pregnancy. No problems develop. What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for these three extra visits? a. O09.893, Z3A. b. O14.03, Z3A. c. Z34. d. Z34.83, O09.893, Z3A.30 - correct answer - a. O09.893, Z3A. A pregnant patient presents to the ED with bleeding, cramping, and concerns of loss of tissue and material per vagina. On examination, the physician discovers an open cervical os with no products of conception seen. He tells the patient she has had an abortion. What type of abortion has she had? a. Missed b. Induced c. Spontaneous d. None of the above - correct answer - c. Spontaneous Mrs. Smith is visiting her mother and is 150 miles away from home. She is in the 26th week of pregnancy. In the late afternoon she suddenly feels a gush of fluids followed by strong uterine contractions. She is rushed to the hospital but the baby is born before they arrive. In the ED she and the baby are examined and the retained placenta is delivered. The baby is in the neonatal nursery doing okay. Mrs. Smith has a 2nd degree perineal laceration secondary to precipitous delivery which was repaired by the ED physician. She will return home for her postpartum care. What ICD- 10 - CM and CPT® codes are reported by the ED physician? a. 59409, O80, Z3A.26, Z37. b. 59409, 59414-51, 59300-51, O62.3, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37. c. 59414, 59300-51, O62.3, O70.9, Z3A.26, Z37. d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 - correct answer - d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.
b. 63267, 69990 c. 63277 d. 63272 - correct answer - b. 63267, 69990 What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported for mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy with macular edema? a. E11. b. E11. c. E11. d. E11.3199 - correct answer - c. E11. The provider makes an incision in the patient's left tympanic membrane in order to inflate eustachian tubes and aspirate fluid in a patient with acute eustachian salpingitis. The procedure is completed without anesthesia. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 69421, H68. b. 69420, H68. c. 69421, H68. d. 69420, H68.022 - correct answer - b. 69420, H68. A patient with a cyst like mass on his left external auditory canal was visualized under the microscope and a microcup forceps was used to obtain a biopsy of tissue along the posterior superior canal wall. What CPT® code is reported? a. 69105-LT b. 69140-RT c. 69145-LT d. 69100-RT - correct answer - a. 69105-LT
A 26-year-old female with a one-year history of a left tympanic membrane perforation. She has extensive tympanosclerosis with a nonhealing perforation. Her options, including observation with water precautions or surgery, were discussed. The patient wished to proceed with surgery. With use of the operating microscope, the surgeon performs a left lateral graft tympanoplasty. What CPT® code is reported? - correct answer - 69631 - LT Rationale: During the procedure, a tympanoplasty is performed. There is no mention of a mastoidectomy or ossicular chain reconstruction being performed. From the CPT® Index look for Tympanoplasty/without Mastoidectomy then verify the code in the numeric section. Modifier LT is used to indicate the procedure was performed on the left ear. What are the three classifications of anesthesia? a. General, regional, and epidural b. General, regional, and monitored anesthesia care c. General, regional, and moderate sedation d. General, MAC, and conscious sedation - correct answer - b. General, regional, and monitored anesthesia care What is the ICD- 10 - CM coding for personal history of colonic polyps? a. Z83. b. K51. c. K63. d. Z86.010 - correct answer - d. Z86. A patient undergoes heart surgery for angina decubitus and coronary artery disease (CAD). What ICD- 10 - CM coding is reported? a. I25. b. I25. c. I20. d. I25.119 - correct answer - a. I25.
