Download AANP FNP Study Set Latest Verified Questions 2025-2026 With Correct Verified Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
AANP FNP Study Set Latest Verified Questions
2025 - 202 6 With Correct Verified Answers
What medication may be effective in treating nightmares associated with PTSD? - correct answer>>alpha-1 antagonist such as prazosin Side effects of prazosin - correct answer>>dizziness, headache, drowsiness, weakness, palpitations, nausea (these generally decrease over time) Interactions to watch for with prazosin - correct answer>>Diuretics, other antihypertensive drugs Contraindications of prazosin - correct answer>>Known allergies to prazosin or quinazolines Macupapular "brick red" rash; starts on head and neck, spreads centrifugally to trunk and extremities - correct answer>>Rubeola (measles) "Slapped cheek" rash; lacy, macular rash - correct answer>>Fifth disease (Erythema infectiosum) Maculopapular rash; looks like measles rash; remarkable lymphadenopathy; macule on soft palate (Forchheimer spots) - correct answer>>Rubella High fever for 2-4 days, then abrupt cessation of fever with appearance of maculopapular rash but not on face - correct answer>>Roseola (Exanthem subitum) Vesicular lesions on erythematous base appearing in crops - correct answer>>Varicella (chickenpox) Exotoxin rash secondary to Group A Strep infection, sandpaper-like rash that ultimately desquamates - correct answer>>Scarlet fever What symptoms most typically characterize the lips/oral cavity of a patient who has herpangina?
- Pharynx is unaffected
- Tonsillar exudate is present
- Painful vesicles on soft palate and mouth
- Unilateral pustules appear on tonsils, blisters appear on lips - correct answer>>3. Painful vesicles on soft palate and mouth A 3-year old girl is diagnosed with fifth disease. Her mother is pregnant (first trimester) and has significant exposure to the sick child. If her mother has a positive IgM (Parvo B19), what is the risk to the fetus?
- Intrauterine fetal death
- Significant fetal neurologic delay
- Congenital heart defects
- Significant orthopedic anomalies - correct answer>>1. Intrauterine fetal death A virus that infects children < 5 years of age in spring and early summer, characterized by fever, vesicles on oral mucous membranes, cutaneous vesicles that ulcerate and crust, and typically resolves in 2-3 days. - correct answer>>Hand, foot and mouth disease Mnemonic for STD treatment - correct answer>>Children Always Get Cats To Follow Silly People Treatment for pertussis - correct answer>>Azithromycin OR Erythromycin OR Clarithromycin (Macrolides) What type of bacteria is more common in COPD/smoker with PNA - correct answer>>H. influenza What is the CURB-65 criteria for hospital admission? - correct answer>>C (confusion) U (BUN >19.6) R (respiration > 30) B (BP < 90/60) 65 years of age What herbal supplement should you never give with alpha-blockers? - correct answer>>Saw palmetto Treatment for anthrax? - correct answer>>Ciprofloxacin What medication should you avoid with grapefruit juice? - correct answer>>CCB
What drug class is Albuterol (Ventolin)? - correct answer>>SABA What classification of asthma is FEV1 >80% predicted with daytime symptoms less than 2 days/week; nighttime awakenings less than 2/month? - correct answer>>Intermittent asthma What classification of asthma is FEV1 > 80% with daytime symptoms more than 2X weekly but not daily, and nighttime awakenings 3-4 per month? - correct answer>>Mild persistent What classification of asthma is FEV1 60-80% predicted with daily symptoms, and nighttime awakenings are more than one per week but not nightly? - correct answer>>Moderate persistent asthma What classification of asthma is FEV1 < 60% predicted, and symptoms of asthma throughout the day, nocturnal awakenings nightly - correct answer>>Severe persistent asthma Preferred treatment for intermittent asthma - correct answer>>SABA (albuterol) as rescue inhaler PRN Preferred treatment for mild persistent asthma? - correct answer>>SABA PRN and low- dose ICS Preferred treatment for moderate persistent asthma? - correct answer>>SABA PRN and low-dose ICS + LABA Preferred treatment for severe persistent asthma? - correct answer>>SABA PRN + medium dose ICS + LABA Ipratroprium (atrovent) - correct answer>>Short acting anticholinergic Tiotropium (Spiriva) - correct answer>>Long acting anticholinergic What is the medication of choice for Lyme disease? - correct answer>>Doxycycline What is the medication of choice for a cat bite? - correct answer>>Augmentin Which of the following is the best location to auscultate for the S3 heart sound?
a. Aortic B. Pulmonic C. Tricuspid D. Mitral - correct answer>>D. Mitral What is another name for enterobiasis? - correct answer>>Pinworms What is another name for condyloma acuminate? - correct answer>>Genital warts What is another name for tinea cruris? - correct answer>>Jock itch What class of medications are citalopram (Celexa), escitalopram (Lexapro), fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft) and paroxetine (Paxil)? - correct answer>>SSRIs What type of medication is carbamezepine (Tegretol)? - correct answer>>Anticonvulsants What can anticonvulsants be used for? - correct answer>>Chronic pain and trigeminal neuralgia What does CAGE stand for? - correct answer>>cut down, annoyed, guilty, eye opener An adolescent male reports the new onset of sx 2 weeks after returning from a hiking trip in North Carolina. He presents with c/o high fever, severe headache, muscles aches, lack of appetite and nausea. The sx are accompanied with a generalized red rash that is not pruritic. The rash initially appeared on both ankles and wrists and then spread towards patient's trunk. The rash involves the palms and soles. What condition is most likely? What is the best treatment plan to follow? - correct answer>>Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever - Refer pt to hospital ED What organism causes RMSF? - correct answer>>Rickettsia rickettsii Treatment for Lyme disease - correct answer>>Doxycycline Which of the following is the highest cause of mortality among adolescents and young adults? A. Suicide B. Smoking
First-line therapy for MRSA skin infections (boils, abscesses) - correct answer>>Bactrim (TMX-SF), doxycycline or minocycline, clindamycin Treatment of choice for UTI in pregnancy? - correct answer>>cephalexin (Keflex) or amoxicillin If a patient has mono and strep, what medication should you avoid? - correct answer>>Amoxicillin (causes rash) If a patient has mono and strep, what medication should you use? - correct answer>>PCN VK or macrolide if allergic Treatment of anthrax? - correct answer>>Ciprofloxacin (cipro) What is the minimum age to use a quinolone? - correct answer>>18 years What is the drug of choice for Pseudomonas aeruginosa? - correct answer>>Ciprofloxacin What antibiotic will increase INR if used with Coumadin? - correct answer>>Bactrim What class of medications is clarithromycin (Biaxin)? - correct answer>>Macrolides What are the two initial treatment choices for COPD patients with mild dyspnea? - correct answer>>SABA (albuterol) or SAAC (ipratropium) What medication causes rhinitis medicamentosa? - correct answer>>Oxymetazoline Nasal Spray (Afrin) and Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) What is the first-line drug for pain from DJD? - correct answer>>Acetaminophen (Tylenol) Capsaicin cream can be used to treat pain in _______ & _______ - correct answer>>trigeminal neuralgia & postherpetic neuralgia What is a sign of aspirin toxicity? - correct answer>>tinnitus Maximum number of days that toradol can be used? - correct answer>>5 days
How many days does ASA irreversibly suppress platelet function? - correct answer>> 7 days What are the 4 live virus vaccines? - correct answer>>MMR Varicella Rotavirus FluMist Should live virus vaccines be given during pregnancy? - correct answer>>NO Leading cause of death (all ages/genders) - correct answer>>Heart disease Leading cause of CA death? - correct answer>>Lung CA What age to start osteoporosis screening (at latest) - correct answer>> 65 How many doses is the Hep B vaccine? - correct answer>>3 doses (0, 1, 6 months) What ages are the Hep B vaccines given? - correct answer>> 0 , 1, 6 months How long does it take after receiving flu vaccine to develop antibodies? - correct answer>>2 weeks When can the Tdap be used as a booster in adolescents and adults? - correct answer>>Can be substituted for a single dose of Td (once in a lifetime) starting at age 11 - 12 years What would you do if a patient has a tetanus-prone wound and vaccine status is unknown? - correct answer>>Td/Tdap vaccine PLUS tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG) injection ASAP How many doses is the PCV 13 series for children under 2? - correct answer>> 4 If a person is vaccinated before the age of 65 with Pneumovax, what is recommended? - correct answer>>Booster dose 5 years after initial dose What age group should receive the shingles vaccine? - correct answer>>One time dose at the age of 60 or older
What do you treat strep throat with if PCN allergy? - correct answer>>Macrolide (azithromycin) Sandpaper-textured pink rash with sore throat and strawberry tongue. Rash starts on head and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities. - correct answer>>Scarlet fever First line treatment for sinusitis (adult) - correct answer>>Augmentin First line treatment for sinusitis with Type 1 PCN allergy (adult) - correct answer>>Levaquin or doxycycline First line treatment for sinusitis with Type 2 PCN allergy (adult) - correct answer>>Cefdinir (Omnicef), cefpodoxime (Vantin), cefuroxime (Ceftin) First line treatment for AOM - correct answer>>Amoxicillin Treatment plan for OME/serous otitis media - correct answer>>Oral decongestants Steroid nasal spray First line treatment for seasonal allergic rhinitis? - correct answer>>Topical steroid nasal spray (Flonase) Treatment for otitis externa - correct answer>>Corticosporin Otic drops (topical ABX combined with steroid) Most common bacterial pathogen for otitis externa - correct answer>>P. aeruginosa What medications should be avoided with class I reaction to PCNs? - correct answer>>Cephalosporins Name of a raised yellow to white small round growth in the bulbar conjunctiva next to the cornea. Located on the nasal and temporal side of the eye. Caused by chronic sun exposure. A. Pinguecula B. Pterygium C. Chalazion D. Hordeolum - correct answer>>A. Pinguecula
Name of a yellow triangular (wedge shaped) thickening of the conjunctiva that extends across the cornea on the nasal side. Results from chronic sun exposure. Sometimes called "surfer's eye". Can be red or inflamed at times. May complain of foreign body sensation on the eye. A. Pinguecula B. Pterygium C. Chalazion D. Hordeolum - correct answer>>B. Pterygium A chronic inflammation of the meibomian gland of the eyelids. It may resolve spontaneously in 2-8 weeks. A. Pinguecula B. Pterygium C. Chalazion D. Hordeolum - correct answer>>C. Chalazion An abscess of a hair follicle and sebaceous gland in the upper and lower eyelid. A. Pinguecula B. Pterygium C. Chalazion D. Hordeolum - correct answer>>D. Hordeolum What type of hearing loss notes Weber test lateralization to affected ear? - correct answer>>Conductive loss What does 20/40 mean for visual acuity? - correct answer>>Patient can see at 20 feet what normal vision person can see at 40 feet. Preferred treatment for human and animal bites - correct answer>>Augmentin Preferred treatment for human and animal bites with PCN allergy - correct answer>>Doxy Treatment for scabies - correct answer>>-permethrin cream [apply at NOC x 3days, wash off in am]. - Clothing & bedding washed in hot soapy water
Start at lowest dose - Retin-A 0.25% cream every other day at bedtime x 2 to 3 weeks, then daily application at bedtime. Photosensitivity reaction possible (use sunscreen) What type of acne has open comedones (blackheads), closed comedones (noninflammatory acne) with or without small papules - correct answer>>Mild acne What type of acne has presence of papules and pustules (inflammatory lesions) with comedones - correct answer>>Moderate acne Treatment plan for moderate acne - correct answer>>Continue with prescription topicals and add oral ABX Tetracycline (500mg BID or 250mg TID), minocycline, doxycycline, erythromycin or clindamycin What is S3 sound usually indicative of - correct answer>>HF or CHF What heart sound can be considered normal in children, pregnant women and some athletes older than 35 years of age? - correct answer>>S What heart sounds is heard from the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves? - correct answer>>S What heart sound is heard from the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves? - correct answer>>S Which type of murmurs radiate? - correct answer>>Systolic What is S4 a sign of? - correct answer>>LVH What is the first grade that a thrill can be heard at? - correct answer>>IV First step in ruling out AAA in an older male with a pulsatile abdominal mass >3cm - correct answer>>Abdominal ultrasound Diagnosis: Fever, chills, malaise, new murmur, sublingual hemorrhages, petechiae on palate, painful violet-colored nodes on fingers or feet (Osler nodes), nontender red spots on the palms/soles (Janeway lesions), Roth spots or retinal hemorrhages may show on funduscopic exam. - correct answer>>Bacterial endocarditis/infective endocarditis
What is it called when the apical pulse can still be heard even though the radial pulse is no longer palpable - correct answer>>Pulsus paradoxus What is the goal INR with AF? - correct answer>> 2 - 3 What is next step is INR is between 4.01-4.99? - correct answer>>Hold one dose, do not give Vit K How many days can it take to see a change in the INR after changing warfarin dose? - correct answer>>3 days Preferred treatment in elderly patient with isolated systolic HTN - correct answer>>Low- dose thiazide diuretic or CCB What are the six side effects of thiazides? - correct answer>>Hyperglycemia Hyperuricemia Hypertrigylceridemia/hyperlipidemia Hypokalemia Hyponatremia Hypomagnesemia What antihypertensive has gynecomastia as a side effect? - correct answer>>Spironolactone What antihypertensive can be used in women who also have osteopenia/osteoporosis?
- correct answer>>Thiazides - they help bone loss by slowing down calcium loss and stimulating osteoclasts What is INR goal for atrial fibrillation? - correct answer>> 2 - 3 First line antihypertensive for stable HF? - correct answer>>ACEI/ARB What class of medications are Losartan (Cozaar), Candesartan (Atacand) and Olmesartan (Benicar)? - correct answer>>ARBs What is the drug class of choice for men with HTN and BPH? - correct answer>>Alpha blockers Advised sodium restriction for HF - correct answer>> 2 - 3g/d
What two bacterial are most commonly associated with atypical pneumonia? - correct answer>>Mycoplasma pneumonia Chlamydia pneumonia If a patient with COPD and/or is a smoker, what is the most likely cause of their PNA - correct answer>>H. influenza Treatment for pertussis? - correct answer>>Macrolides What would you suspect in a healthy adult with no fever who has been coughing for more than 2-3 weeks, especially if treated with an antibiotic that was not a macrolide, and is getting worse? - correct answer>>Pertussis, but rule out PNA first In what populations would a PPD be positive if >5mm - correct answer>>HIV or immunocompromised In what populations would a PPD be positive if >10mm - correct answer>>Recent immigrants (Latin America, Asia, Africa, India, Pacific Islands) HCW/jail workers Residents at jails or nursing homes What asthma classification is FEV1 > 80% predicted with daytime symptoms less than 2 days/week; nighttime awakenings less than 2/month - correct answer>>Intermittent asthma What asthma classification is FEV1 > 80% predicted with daytime symptoms more than 2 days/week but not daily; nighttime awakenings 3-4/month - correct answer>>Mild persistent asthma What asthma classification is FEV1 60-80% of predicted daily symptoms; nighttime awakenings more than one per week (but not nightly) - correct answer>>Moderate persistent asthma What asthma classification is FEV1 < 60% predicted; symptoms of asthma throughout the day; nocturnal awakenings nightly - correct answer>>Severe persistent asthma All asthmatics should be on a ____? - correct answer>>SABA What is first line treatment for severe asthmatic exacerbation or respiratory distress? - correct answer>>Adrenaline injection
For asthma Step 3, what should a patient be on? - correct answer>>A low-dose ICS + LABA (example: Advair or Symbicort) What is subclinical hypothyroidism? - correct answer>>TSH elevated with normal free T How to treat subclinical hypothyroidism - correct answer>>Don't treat yet, recheck TSH in 6 months After starting Synthroid, when do you recheck TSH? - correct answer>> 6 - 8 weeks What causes the Somogyi effect? - correct answer>>Overtreatment with evening or bedtime glucose (hypoglycemia in the nighttime causes a rebound effect) Rapid-acting insulin lasts: A. One meal at a time B. Meal to meal C. From breakfast to dinner D. Once a day - correct answer>>A. one meal at a time Regular insulin lasts: A. One meal at a time B. Meal to meal C. From breakfast to dinner D. Once a day - correct answer>>B. meal to meal NPH insulin lasts: A. One meal at a time B. Meal to meal C. From breakfast to dinner D. Once a day - correct answer>>C. from breakfast to dinner Lantus is: A. One meal at a time B. Meal to meal
Severe midepigastric pain that radiates to the mid back is a classic sign of what? - correct answer>>Acute pancreatitis Palpation of the left lower quadrant of a person's abdomen increases the pain felt in the right lower quadrant (sign and association?) - correct answer>>Rosving's sign & appendicitis What is triple therapy for H. pylori? - correct answer>>Clarithromycin (Biaxin) + amoxicillin OR flagyl PPI for 4-8 weeks Where is McBurney's point located? - correct answer>>Between superior iliac crest and umbilicus in RLQ Midinspiratory arrest is a positive finding for what sign? - correct answer>>Murphy's sign Complicated UTIs must be treated for how many days? - correct answer>>minimum 7 days What is the standard definition of UTI? - correct answer>>> 100,000 CFU/mL of one organism Treatment for mild pyelonephritis in OP setting - correct answer>>Ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin What does large numbers of squamous epithelial cells in the urine sample mean? - correct answer>>Contamination What electrolyte should be monitored upon initiation of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or ARB with kidney disease? - correct answer>>K What other condition is associated with a predisposition to temporal arteritis (GCA) - correct answer>>Polymyalgia rheumatica Mnemonic for cranial nerves - correct answer>>Oh Oh Oh Topless Tiffany And Fat Alex Got Vaginitis And Herpes Abortive treatment for migraines - correct answer>>Triptans
How is temporal arteritis treated? - correct answer>>High-dosed prednisone for several weeks What is the screening test for temporal arteritis? - correct answer>>Sed rate Which cranial nerve is associated with Bell's palsy? - correct answer>>VII What three classes of medications can be used for migraine prophylaxis - correct answer>>Tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline) Beta blockers (propranolol) Antiseizure medications (Topamax) What carpal tunnel test involves briskly tapping the anterior wrist? - correct answer>>Tinel's sign What carpal tunnel test involves full flexion of wrist for 60 seconds? - correct answer>>Phalen's sign Classic presentation of median nerve compression? - correct answer>>gradual onset, numbness and tingling of thumb, index finger and middle finger, hand grip of affected hand is weaker, may have difficulty lifting heavy objects IgG Anti-HAV (Hepatitis A Antibody IgG Type) Positive - correct answer>>Antibodies present (immune) No virus present and not infectious Hx of Hep A OR vaccinated IgM Anti-HAV Positive - correct answer>>Acute infection (currently contagious) Hep A still present, no current immunity HBsAg - correct answer>>Screening test for Hep B If positive, patient has virus and is infectious Anti-HBs - correct answer>>Antibodies present and immune Presence may be due to either a past infection or vaccination HbeAg - correct answer>>Indicates viral replication; may be highly infectious Chronic Hep B
