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AANP FNP LATEST EXAM 2025-2026 WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

Trinity School of NursingNursing

Basal Cell Carcinoma - correct answer>>-painless, pearly, ulcerated nodule with overlying telangiectasis -found on sun areas Actinic Keratoses - correct answer>>-slightly rough, pink or flesh-colored lesion in sun exposed area -pharmacological treatment: 5-fluorouracil (topical chemotherapy) -non-pharmacological treatment: chemical peel, cryotherapy, laser resurfacing Tuberculosis - correct answer>>I. Transmission A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis carried in airborne droplets B. Active Pulmonary or Laryngeal Tuberculosis transmitted 1. Sneeze, cough, speak, or sing II. Symptoms A. Latent Tuberculosis is asymptomatic B. Active Tuberculosis presentation often mimics cancer presentation 1. Non-specific presentation (most common) a. Fatigue b. Weight loss c. Cachexia d. Night Sweats C. Pulmonary Tuberculosis symptoms 1. Productive cough (typically 2-3 weeks) 2. Hemoptysis (uncommon) 3. Pleuritic Chest Pain 4. Dyspnea

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AANP FNP LATEST EXAM 2025-2026 WITH
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
Basal Cell Carcinoma - correct answer>>-painless, pearly, ulcerated nodule with
overlying telangiectasis
-found on sun areas
Actinic Keratoses - correct answer>>-slightly rough, pink or flesh-colored lesion in sun-
exposed area
-pharmacological treatment: 5-fluorouracil (topical chemotherapy)
-non-pharmacological treatment: chemical peel, cryotherapy, laser resurfacing
Tuberculosis - correct answer>>I. Transmission
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis carried in airborne droplets
B. Active Pulmonary or Laryngeal Tuberculosis transmitted
1. Sneeze, cough, speak, or sing
II. Symptoms
A. Latent Tuberculosis is asymptomatic
B. Active Tuberculosis presentation often mimics cancer presentation
1. Non-specific presentation (most common)
a. Fatigue
b. Weight loss
c. Cachexia
d. Night Sweats
C. Pulmonary Tuberculosis symptoms
1. Productive cough (typically 2-3 weeks)
2. Hemoptysis (uncommon)
3. Pleuritic Chest Pain
4. Dyspnea
III. Signs
A. Sites of Involvement
1. Primary infection: lung involvement
B. Disseminated Disease
IV. Management
A. Latent Tuberculosis
1. Positive PPD without signs of Active Tb
2. Treatment indicated if risk of Tb Progression from latent to active disease
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Download AANP FNP LATEST EXAM 2025-2026 WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

AANP FNP LATEST EXAM 2025-2026 WITH

CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS

Basal Cell Carcinoma - correct answer>>-painless, pearly, ulcerated nodule with overlying telangiectasis

  • found on sun areas Actinic Keratoses - correct answer>>-slightly rough, pink or flesh-colored lesion in sun- exposed area
  • pharmacological treatment: 5-fluorouracil (topical chemotherapy)
  • non-pharmacological treatment: chemical peel, cryotherapy, laser resurfacing Tuberculosis - correct answer>>I. Transmission A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis carried in airborne droplets B. Active Pulmonary or Laryngeal Tuberculosis transmitted
  1. Sneeze, cough, speak, or sing II. Symptoms A. Latent Tuberculosis is asymptomatic B. Active Tuberculosis presentation often mimics cancer presentation
  2. Non-specific presentation (most common) a. Fatigue b. Weight loss c. Cachexia d. Night Sweats C. Pulmonary Tuberculosis symptoms
  3. Productive cough (typically 2-3 weeks)
  4. Hemoptysis (uncommon)
  5. Pleuritic Chest Pain
  6. Dyspnea III. Signs A. Sites of Involvement
  7. Primary infection: lung involvement B. Disseminated Disease IV. Management A. Latent Tuberculosis
  8. Positive PPD without signs of Active Tb
  9. Treatment indicated if risk of Tb Progression from latent to active disease

B. Active Tuberculosis Gout - correct answer>>I. Pathophysiology A. Gout occurs when Uric Acid levels exceed solubility limits

  1. Monosodium urate crystals deposit in joints, Kidney, and soft tissues
  2. Crystal deposition triggers a inflammatory response from cytokines and Neutrophils
  3. Joint space is irreversibly injured with ongoing attacks II. Risk Factors A. Most common
  4. Obesity
  5. Alcohol use (especially beer)
  6. High purine diet (red meats, turkey and wild game, organ meats, seafood)
  7. Drinks sweetened with high fructose corn syrup
  8. Diuretic therapy including Thiazide Diuretics
  9. Other risks a. Diabetes Mellitus b. Hyperlipidemia c. Hypertension d. Atherosclerosis e. Renal Insufficiency f. Myeloproliferative disease III. Symptoms A. Associated Symptoms
  10. Chills
  11. Fever as high as 104 F (40 C)
  12. Severity: Very severe pain a. Unable to bear weight b. Too painful to put on socks c. Intollerant to light touch from blankets B. Regions Lower extremities
  13. First Metatarsophalangeal joint of great toe (most common) a. Known as Podagra i. Affected in 50% of first gout attacks Mid-tarsal joints
  14. Ankle Joints
  15. Knee Joints C. Regions upper extremities
  16. Fingers
  1. Associated with Nystagmus, Nausea or Vomiting, head motion intolerance, and gait unsteadiness F. Positive HiNTs Exam Criteria (at least 1 of 3 positive) are suggestive of cerebellar CVA or Brainstem CVA (100% sensitive, 96% specific)
  2. Normal Horizontal Head Impulse Test (no saccade/correction on head rotation) OR
  3. Nystagmus that changes direction (or Vertical Nystagmus or torsional Nystagmus) OR
  4. Skew Deviation on Alternate Eye Cover Test in which uncovered eye demonstrates quick vertical gaze corrections III. Causes: Central Vertigo A. Non-Vascular Central Causes of Vertigo (CN 8 or CNS)
  5. Tumor a. Acoustic Neuroma (Vestibular Schwannoma) b. Infratentorial ependymoma c. Brainstem glioma d. Medulloblastoma e. Neurofibromatosis
  6. Migraine Headache
  7. Multiple Sclerosis B. Vascular disease related transient cerebral anoxia
  8. Specific anoxia to vertebrobasilar system a. Vessel specific i. Brainstem Infarct (associated with Hearing Loss)
  9. Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery Infarction
  10. Anterior Vestibular Artery Infarction ii. Brainstem Infarct (no Hearing Loss)
  11. Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery infarction
  12. Labyrinthine Artery Infarction b. Precipitating conditions i Peripheral Vertigo - correct answer>>I. Findings: Suggestive of peripheral causes A. Pathognomonic for peripheral cause
  13. Sudden onset with brief episodes often on awakening
  14. Rotary Illusion with Nausea, Vomiting B. Nystagmus
  15. Combined horizontal and torsional Nystagmus
  16. Persists 5-20 seconds after Dix-Hallpike Maneuver
  17. Fixation of eyes on object inhibits Nystagmus C. Moderate imbalance

D. Nausea or Vomiting E. Associated findings

  1. Hearing Loss
  2. Tinnitus F. Tullio's Phenomenon
  3. Nystagmus and Vertigo provoked by loud sounds II. Causes: Common (Peripheral Vertigo) A. Acute Vestibular Neuronitis B. Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo C. Meniere's Disease III. Causes: Other (Peripheral Vertigo) A. Ear Infections
  4. Serous Otitis Media
  5. Chronic Otitis Media
  6. Otitis Externa
  7. Mastoiditis B. Other infections
  8. Herpes Zoster Oticus (Ramsay Hunt Syndrome)
  9. Acute Labyrinthitis (uncommon) a. Not synonymous with Vestibular Neuritis i. Labyrinthitis is much less common than neuritis ii. Labyrinthitis causes permanent Hearing Loss b. Types i. Viral Labyrinthitis ii. Bacterial Labyrinthitis (Rare) C. Structural disorder
  10. Cholesteatoma
  11. Perilymphatic Fistula
  12. Otosclerosis D. Trauma
  13. Temporal Bone Fracture
  14. Labyrinthine Concussion Reiter's Syndrome - correct answer>> Perihepatitis - correct answer>>

C. Adduction and internal rotation may also provoke IV. Management A. NSAIDs B. Modify activity C. Trochanteric Bursa Injection Marfan Syndrome - correct answer>>I. Etiology A. Defect in gene coding for fibrillin structure B. Connective tissue defect affecting multiple systems

  1. Musculoskeletal disease
  2. Ocular disease
  3. Cardiac disease II. Signs A. Body habitus
  4. Tall (Height exceeds 95th percentile for age)
  5. Extremely slender build B. Cardiovascular signs and conditions
  6. Mitral Valve Prolapse
  7. Aortic root dilatation
  8. Myocardial Infarction
  9. Aortic Insufficiency
  10. Congestive Heart Failure
  11. Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
  12. Aortic Dissection C. Musculoskeletal signs and conditions
  13. Arachnodactyly (Spider fingers)
  14. Pectus deformity (Pigeon Breast or Funnel Breast)
  15. High narrow Palate
  16. Arm Span exceeds height
  17. Leg length exceeds trunk length
  18. Hyperextensible joints and ligaments
  19. Pes planus
  20. Hammer toes
  21. Vertebral Column deformities (e.g. Kyphoscoliosis)
  22. Inguinal Hernia
  23. Striae Distensae D. Ocular signs and conditions
  24. Upward ectopia lentis
  1. Myopia
  2. Iridodonesis
  3. Glaucoma
  4. Retinal Detachment III. Labs A. Homocystinuria IV. Radiology A. Echocardiogram
  5. Enlarged aortic root B. Chest XRay
  6. Deformed aorta and pulmonary artery Korsakoff's Syndrome - correct answer>>I. Causes A. Untreated Thiamine deficiency from Alcoholism II. Pathophysiology A. Follows Wernicke's Encephalopathy B. Lesions develop in mammillary bodies and Thalamus III. Signs A. Severe Short Term Memory loss B. Intact Immediate Memory C. Confabulation IV. Management A. Thiamine (See Wernicke's Encephalopathy) V. Prognosis A. Life-long Impairment B. Improvement in 75% of patients with treatment Mallory Weiss Syndrome - correct answer>>I. Pathophysiology A. Severe Retching results in tear in esophageal mucosa B. Lesion occurs near esophagogastric junction II. Symptoms A. Hematemesis (vomiting fresh blood) follows episode of Retching or Vomiting

b. Prednisone 1-1.5 mg/kg orally daily B. Intravenous Immune globulin (IV IG)

  1. Dose: 1 g/kg/day for 2-3 days C. Rituximab (Rituxan) IV. Management: Emergent management A. Indications for urgent or emergent management (uncommon)
  2. Serious Hemorrhage
  3. Urgent or emergent surgery required B. Treatment
  4. Platelet Transfusion at dosing 2-3 fold greater than usual dose Hidradenitis Suppurativa - correct answer>>Hidradenitis Suppurativa is a bacterial infection of the sebaceous glands of the axilla (or groin) by Gram-positive Staphylococcus aureus. It is marked by flare-ups and resolution. It can be confirmed by a C&S of the purulent discharge. I. Pathophysiology A. Inflammation of the Apocrine Sweat Glands II. Symptoms A. Pain, itching, burning and erythema in area involved III. Signs A. Characteristic
  5. Early: Inflammatory Nodule or abscess
  6. Later a. Sinus tract formation b. Fibrosis c. Bridge scarring d. Hypertrophic Scar or Keloid e. Contractures f. Comedones B. Distribution
  7. Axilla (more common in women)
  8. Anogenital area (more common in men)
  9. Breasts
  10. Extension onto back and buttocks IV. Management: Mild (Single Nodules with minimal pain)

A. Avoid exposure to heat and humidity B. Avoid shaving if it causes irritation C. Avoid synthetic tight fitting clothes D. Use antibacterial soaps or hibiclens E. Weight loss F. Apply warm compresses to affected area V. Management: Moderate (Recurrent Nodules, pain, abscesses) A. Antibiotics for 2 months or more

  1. Axillary involvement a. Dicloxacillin b. Erythromycin c. Tetracycline d. Clindamycin Topically (Cleocin-T)
  2. Anogenital involvement a. Augmentin or other broad spectrum antibiotic B. Other options
  3. Oral Contraceptives (high Estrogen, low androgen)
  4. Accutane 0.5 to 1 mg/kg PO daily a. Used before surgery
  5. Corticosteroids (variable efficacy) a. Prednisone 70 mg tapered over 14 days b. Intralesional triamcinolone
  6. Cryotherapy VI. Management: Late (abscesses, sinuses, scarring) A. Referral to Dermatology B. Extensive surgical excision of lesions Infant Reflexes - correct answer>>The fencing reflex (tonic neck reflex) is done by turning the head to one side with the jaw over the shoulder. This should cause the arm and leg on the side where the head is turned to extend and the arm and leg on the opposite side to flex. I. Reflexes A. Foot
  7. Stroke Inner Sole (Grasp) a. Toes curl around ("grasp") examiner's finger
  8. Stroke Outer Sole (Babinski) a. Toes spread, great toe dorsiflexion

Salter-Harris Fractures - correct answer>>Fractures through a growth plate; therefore, they are unique to pediatric patients. These fractures are categorized according to the involvement of the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis. The classification of the injuries is important, because it affects patient treatment and provides clues to possible long-term complications. Pernicious Anemia (B12 Deficiency) - correct answer>>A. Symptoms:

  1. Initial: Generalized Weakness, Paresthesias
  2. Next: Leg Stiffness, Ataxia
  3. Late: Memory Impairment, Personality Change, Depressed Mood B. Signs: (Mnemonic: "The 5 P's")
  4. Pancytopenia (decrease in all blood cell lines)
  5. Peripheral Neuropathy
  6. Posterior Spinal Column Neuropathy (Dorsal Column Degeneration, Decreased proprioception, Decreased Vibration Sense, Ataxia, Hyporeflexia {e.g. Decreased Ankle Jerk})
  7. Pyramidal Tract Signs
  8. Papillary Atrophy of Tongue (Atrophic Glossitis) red, beefy tongue C. Labs:
  9. CBC a. MCV >100 (macrocytic) b. Leukopenia (decreased white blood cells) c. Thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets)
  10. Serum B a. Megaloblastosis (oval macrocytes) D. Risk Factors:
  11. Strict Vegetarian
  12. History of Gastrectomy (Gastric Bypass Surgery)
  13. Recent History of Malabsorption (Diarrhea) E. B12 Food Sources
  14. Organ Meat a. Liver
  15. Dairy Products
  16. Fortified Cereal
  17. Shellfish a. Clam

Iron Deficiency Anemia - correct answer>>A. Symptoms:

  1. Fatigue
  2. Generalized Weakness
  3. Dyspnea on Exertion
  4. Lightheadedness B. Signs:
  5. Pale Conjunctiva or Mucous Membranes
  6. Pallor at Nail Beds
  7. Tachycardia
  8. Melena (dark, tarry stool)
  9. Hematochezia (grossly bloody stool) C. Labs:
  10. CBC a. MCV <75 (microcytic)
  11. Iron Studies a. Serum Ferritin b. TIBC c. Serum Iron D. Risk Factors:
  12. Vegetarian
  13. Gastrointestinal Disease E. Iron Food Sources:
  14. Red Meat
  15. Green Leafy Veggies
  16. Dried Fruit
  17. Nuts
  18. Iron-Fortified Cereal F. Associated Symptoms:
  19. Generalized Pruritis (itching)
  20. Restless Leg Syndrome (crawling feeling in legs)
  21. Glossitis (inflammation of tongue)
  22. Angular Cheilitis (cracking at corners of mouth) G. Treatment:

II. Symptoms A. Abdominal Pain

  1. Pancreatitis may be painful in some cases
  2. Mid-Epigastric Pain, Left Upper Quadrant Abdominal
  3. Pain or Periumbilical Abdominal Pain
  4. Radiation into the chest or mid-back
  5. Worse with eating and drinking (especially fatty foods) and in supine position
  6. Boring pain that starts episodically and advances to become constant III. Signs A. General
  7. Low Grade Fever B. Abdominal
  8. Abdominal tenderness and guarding in the upper quadrants
  9. Peritoneal signs may be present (e.g. abdominal rigidity or Rebound Tenderness)
  10. Bowel sounds decreased
  11. Palpable upper abdominal mass
  12. Cullen's Sign (periumbilical discoloration with subcutaneous Ecchymosis and edema)
  13. Grey Turner's Sign (flank discoloration with Ecchymosis) IV. Labs A. Approach
  14. Consider obtaining Serum Amylase and serum Lipase simultaneously on initial evaluation a. Expect Serum Amylase and Lipase to be increased in Pancreatitis (question diagnosis if only 1 increased) b. Serum Lipase to amylase ratio >4 (and especially >5) strongly suggests Alcoholic Pancreatitis B. Fasting Triglycerides
  15. Hypertriglyceridemia (>1500) Cullen's Sign - correct answer>>Blue discoloration from subcutaneous ecchymosis and edema in periumbilical area. Grey Turner's Sign - correct answer>>Discoloration at the flank with blue-red-purple or green-brown ecchymosis. Results from tissue catabolism of hemoglobin. Subungual Hematoma - correct answer>>I. Causes A. Crush injury to nail

II. Symptoms A. Severe, throbbing digital pain III. Signs A. Discoloration of nail B. Tip of digit swollen and tender IV. Management: Drainage (Nail Trephination) A. Contraindications

  1. Phalanx Fracture
  2. Nail Bed Laceration
  3. Large Subungual Hematomas (>50% of nail) a. Requires Nail Bed Laceration suturing B. Technique
  4. Gently drill 2-3 small holes into nail a. Number 11 blade or b. Spin 18 gauge needle between fingers or c. Heated paper clip Serum Creatinine - correct answer>>I. Pathophysiology A. Increases by 1.0-1.5 mg/dl/day if no Renal Function B. Often unchanged until 25-50% of Renal Function lost C. Doubled Serum Creatinine implies 50% Renal Function II. Increased Serum Creatinine A. Renal Insufficiency B. Decreased renal perfusion C. Urinary Tract Infections D. Skeletal muscle Trauma or Rhabdomyolysis E. Ketonemia F. Diabetic Ketoacidosis G. Creatine Supplementation >15-20 grams per day
  5. May increase Serum Creatinine over 2. H. Medications (Inhibit tubular secretion of Creatinine)
  6. Aminoglycosides
  7. Cephalosporins a. Cefoxitin b. Cephalothin
  8. Hydantoin
  9. Diuretics
  1. Treat Sexual Partner also a. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days is most effective for male partners b. Avoid treatment in first trimester of pregnancy c. Avoid intravaginal preparations of Metronidazole or Tinidazole due to low cure rates B. Non-Pregnant, Non-Lactating Patient
  2. Metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 g orally for 1 dose (preferred) or
  3. Metronidazole (Flagyl) 250 mg PO three times daily for 7 days or
  4. Metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg PO twice daily for 7 days or
  5. Tinidazole (Tindamax) 2 grams orally for 1 dose a. Teratogenic, Category D (do not use if any risk of pregnancy) Bacterial Endocarditis - correct answer>>I. Pathophysiology A. Endocardial layer infection (typically Heart Valves)
  6. Mitral valve and aortic valve are most likely to be involved
  7. Starts with endothelial damage a. Turbulent flow (e.g. valvular stenosis or valvular regurgitation) b. Intravascular device-related injury (e.g. catheters) c. Chronic inflammation (e.g. IV Drug Abuse)
  8. Injured endotholelium colonized with transient bacteremia (e.g. dental procedures, GI/GU surgery) a. Sewing cuff of prosthetic valves are most often affected B. Two factor combination predisposes to the development of endocarditis
  9. Bloodborne pathogen a. Bacteria b. Fungi
  10. Cardiac lesion: Intracardiac surface upon which the pathogens can adhere a. Prosthetic Heart Valve b. Native valve with congenital or acquired defect II. Symptoms: Typical Presentation A. Prodrome type symptoms
  11. Fever (80-90% of cases) a. May be absent in elderly or immunosuppressed
  12. Chills
  13. Sweats
  14. Myalgias (especially large muscle groups)
  15. Fatigue
  16. Weight loss
  17. Anorexia
  18. Arthralgia
  1. Malaise
  2. Pallor B. Non-productive cough
  3. Present in up to 24% of cases
  4. Better when supine, worse when upright C. Classic endocarditis symptoms as above
  5. May only be present in severe Acute Endocarditis III. Signs: Classic Presentation (Osler) A. Congestive Heart Failure
  6. Present in severe cases B. Systolic Murmur from Heart Valve
  7. New murmur auscultated in 48% of careful examinations
  8. Most often a valve regurgitation murmur
  9. Characteristics change on serial exams
  10. Absent in tricuspid valve involvement (rare outside of IV Drug Abuse) C. Petechiae on mucus membranes (mouth, Conjunctiva) D. Splinter Hemorrhages
  11. Non-blanching linear lesions beneath nails E. Splenomegaly F. Osler Nodes
  12. Painful, raised, violaceous nodules affecting pulp of fingers and toes G. Janeway Lesions

Venous Insufficiency - correct answer>>I. Pathophysiology A. Normal Venous valves prevent backflow

  1. Distal to Proximal vein backflow
  2. Superficial to Deep vein backflow B. Incompetent valves allow backflow when legs relax
  3. Results in distal venous Hypertension
  4. Primary etiology for Chronic Venous Insufficiency II. Symptoms and Signs A. Initial Changes
  5. Varicose Veins
  6. Tan or reddish brown Skin Color changes
  7. Weeping and excoriated skin
  8. Pedal edema B. Later Changes