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A series of questions and answers related to airport operations, safety, and security, primarily focusing on faa regulations and best practices. It covers topics such as airport certification, emergency response, wildlife hazard management, runway safety, and security procedures. The questions are designed to test knowledge of key concepts and regulations essential for airport personnel and aviation professionals, providing a valuable resource for study and review. This material is useful for university students, aviation professionals, and lifelong learners interested in aviation management and airport operations. The document offers a concise overview of critical aspects of airport management, making it a useful tool for exam preparation and professional development.
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Question 1 What is the primary purpose of an Airport Certification Manual (ACM)? A) To outline the airport’s business plan B) To document the airport’s operational procedures and compliance with FAA regulations C) To provide marketing strategies for airport growth D) To describe airline schedules and routes
Answer: B Explanation: The ACM outlines operational procedures and ensures compliance with FAA regulations, particularly Part 139 for certificated airports. Question 2 Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of airport operations personnel? A) Runway inspections B) Wildlife hazard management C) Setting airline ticket prices D) Managing emergency response drills Answer: C Explanation: Airport operations do not handle airline ticket pricing; this is the airlines’ responsibility. Question 3 According to FAA Part 139, how often must a full airfield inspection be conducted? A) Once per shift B) Once per week C) Daily D) Monthly Answer: C Explanation: FAA regulations require daily airfield inspections to ensure safety and compliance. Question 4 Which agency is primarily responsible for airport security screening of passengers and baggage?
Explanation: Birds pose a significant hazard due to the risk of bird strikes. Question 7 During an emergency, who has the ultimate authority over the airport incident command? A) Airport Operations Manager B) Fire Chief or Incident Commander C) FAA Regional Manager D) Airline Representative Answer: B Explanation: The Incident Commander, often the Fire Chief or designated official, leads emergency response. Question 8 Which document provides guidance on the airport’s emergency plan and procedures? A) Airport Security Program B) Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) C) Airport Master Plan D) Airport Noise Abatement Plan Answer: B Explanation: The Airport Emergency Plan details procedures for responding to emergencies. Question 9 What is the minimum visibility required for a vehicle to operate on the movement area at night?
A) 100 feet of visibility and headlights on B) No special requirements C) Flashing warning lights and radio communication with ATC D) Flashing warning lights only Answer: C Explanation: Vehicles must have flashing warning lights and maintain radio contact with Air Traffic Control when on the movement area. Question 10 How often should airport personnel conduct emergency response drills? A) Annually B) Monthly C) Quarterly D) Weekly Answer: A Explanation: FAA Part 139 requires at least one full-scale emergency exercise annually.Question 11 What is the main purpose of runway safety areas (RSA)? A) To provide extra space for aircraft parking B) To reduce the risk of damage to aircraft during undershoot, overshoot, or excursion from the runway C) To mark the location of taxiways D) To separate passenger terminals from the runway Answer: B Explanation: RSAs are designed to protect aircraft by providing a safety buffer around runways.
C) Wait for the next quarterly meeting D) Start work immediately Answer: A Explanation: To ensure safety, any work on active movement areas requires FAA notification and a NOTAM. Question 15 Which system provides visual guidance to pilots during low visibility landings? A) VASI (Visual Approach Slope Indicator) B) AWOS (Automated Weather Observing System) C) ILS (Instrument Landing System) D) PAPI (Precision Approach Path Indicator) Answer: C Explanation: The ILS provides electronic guidance for precision approaches under low visibility. Question 16 What role does the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) play? A) Oversees airport security operations and coordinates with TSA and law enforcement B) Manages airline baggage handling C) Controls air traffic on runways D) Handles airport concessions contracts Answer: A Explanation: The ASC manages airport security programs and liaises with regulatory agencies.
Question 17 How often should runway markings and lighting be inspected? A) Annually B) Quarterly C) Weekly or as required by FAA Part 139 D) Only after storms Answer: C Explanation: Runway markings and lighting must be regularly inspected and maintained per FAA requirements. Question 18 What is the primary goal of airport emergency management? A) To ensure continuous airport business operations during emergencies B) To coordinate a rapid, effective response to protect life and property C) To manage airline schedules during crises D) To provide media updates Answer: B Explanation: The main goal is to protect people and property through effective emergency response. Question 19 Which of the following is considered a movement area at an airport? A) Public parking lot B) Runways and taxiways C) Terminal gates D) Rental car lots
C) 1,000 feet D) 400 feet Answer: B Explanation: The FAA generally requires a 500-foot-wide safety area (250 feet on either side of the centerline). Question 23 What color are taxiway centerline lights? A) Blue B) Green C) White D) Yellow Answer: B Explanation: Taxiway centerline lights are green. Question 24 Which agency is responsible for investigating civil aviation accidents? A) FAA B) TSA C) NTSB D) DOT Answer: C Explanation: The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) is responsible for investigating aviation accidents. Question 25
What is the typical time requirement to notify the FAA before a full-scale emergency exercise? A) 24 hours B) 72 hours C) 7 days D) 60 days Answer: D Explanation: FAA guidance recommends a minimum of 60 days' notice before full- scale emergency exercises. Question 26 Who has the authority to close a runway due to unsafe conditions? A) Air traffic controller B) Airport operations staff or airport manager C) Airline station manager D) TSA agent Answer: B Explanation: Airport management or operations staff can close runways for safety reasons. Question 27 What document must include procedures for dealing with hazardous materials spills at an airport? A) Airport Certification Manual (ACM) B) Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) C) Airport Concession Plan D) Terminal Development Guide
B) Daily briefing logs C) Through the FAA's Wildlife Strike Database D) Part 139 discrepancy reports and NOTAMs Answer: D Explanation: Discrepancies and safety-related issues are documented in Part 139 records and reported via NOTAMs when necessary.Question 31 Which airport zone is most restricted under security regulations? A) Terminal public area B) Air Operations Area (AOA) C) Sterile area D) Security Identification Display Area (SIDA) Answer: D Explanation: SIDA is the most secure area of an airport where access is strictly controlled and requires proper identification. Question 32 What is the correct color for runway edge lights during nighttime operations under normal conditions? A) Red B) Blue C) White D) Green Answer: C Explanation: Runway edge lights are white under normal conditions, turning yellow on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway (whichever is less). Question 33
Which part of an airport is typically designated for aircraft fueling, maintenance, and parking? A) Movement area B) Terminal building C) Apron (or ramp) D) Runway safety area Answer: C Explanation: The apron is where aircraft are parked, fueled, and maintained. Question 34 Which plan is required to outline procedures for dealing with disabled aircraft? A) Snow and Ice Control Plan B) Wildlife Hazard Management Plan C) Airport Certification Manual D) Emergency Plan Answer: C Explanation: The ACM includes procedures for clearing disabled aircraft from the airfield. Question 35 What agency issues and enforces aviation safety regulations for civil airports in the U.S.? A) TSA B) NTSB C) FAA D) DHS
B) To coordinate response to various airport emergencies C) To secure airline financial records D) To establish airspace boundaries Answer: B Explanation: The AEP guides coordinated responses to all types of airport emergencies. Question 39 How is the airport's responsibility for snow and ice control defined? A) Part 139 Subpart C B) The Airport Master Plan C) The Snow and Ice Control Plan (SICP) in the ACM D) FAA Circular 150/5200-30 only Answer: C Explanation: Snow and ice control procedures must be included in the ACM and documented in the SICP. Question 40 Which of the following best describes an incursion? A) An aircraft taxiing to a gate B) An unauthorized entry onto a runway or movement area C) Routine runway inspection D) A passenger failing security screening Answer: B Explanation: A runway incursion is any unauthorized presence on a runway or movement area, often leading to potential conflict with aircraft.
Question 41 Which part of the ACM deals with procedures for issuing NOTAMs? A) Security section B) Airport Layout Plan C) Self-inspection program D) Emergency response section Answer: C Explanation: NOTAM issuance is included in the airport's self-inspection procedures, per Part 139. Question 42 What tool is commonly used to measure pavement condition for compliance and maintenance planning? A) FOD radar B) Friction measuring device C) Pavement Condition Index (PCI) D) Fuel flow meter Answer: C Explanation: PCI is a standardized method for assessing pavement conditions and determining maintenance needs. Question 43 What is the most important reason for wildlife hazard assessments at airports? A) To promote local biodiversity B) To meet economic development goals C) To reduce the risk of wildlife strikes with aircraft D) To comply with customs regulations
A) The airline B) Airport operations staff C) Air traffic control D) TSA agents Answer: B Explanation: Airport operations personnel often submit strike reports as part of their wildlife hazard program. Question 47 How are changes in braking action on runways typically reported to pilots? A) Via text message B) Over the public address system C) Through ATIS broadcasts and NOTAMs D) On airline websites Answer: C Explanation: Braking action reports are communicated through ATIS and NOTAMs for pilot awareness. Question 48 Which of the following documents must an airport keep updated as part of their FAA compliance? A) Security checkpoint staffing chart B) Airport Certification Manual C) Public relations plan D) Concessions and lease agreement Answer: B
Explanation: The ACM is required for Part 139 airports and must be kept current for FAA compliance. Question 49 What triggers the requirement for an airport to conduct a Wildlife Hazard Assessment (WHA)? A) Every 10 years B) At FAA’s discretion C) After a significant wildlife strike or trend in strikes D) Upon request from airport management Answer: C Explanation: The FAA requires a WHA after events like multiple wildlife strikes or a serious incident involving wildlife. Question 50 Which type of NOTAM advises of airfield conditions that may affect safe operations? A) FDC NOTAM B) GPS NOTAM C) Local NOTAM D) Field Condition (FICON) NOTAM Answer: D Explanation: FICON NOTAMs are used to describe field surface conditions, including snow, ice, or other contamination.Question 51 Which type of pavement is most susceptible to Foreign Object Debris (FOD) damage if not properly maintained? A) Asphalt B) Concrete
