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A vertical standard is specific to a particular industry True By identifying lines of authority, communication, and coordination among personnel and managers, the is being defined according to the General Health and Safety Program (HASP). Organizational Structure The OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard requires that new employees at hazardous waste sites receive which of the following training? 40 - hour training course on health and safety Through planning, potential hazards may be anticipated and steps may be taken to reduce the risk of harm to workers, the public, and the environment using which of the following? Safety and Health Program Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response training is required for a person working at a hazardous waste at a Treatment, Storage, Disposal Facility.
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Which of the following is not an employee right under OSHA? To shut down a job you believe is unsafe A Safety Data Sheet (SDS). Must be provided for chemicals used at a facility The term "Superfund" is another name for which of the following? CERCLA To protect the worker from exposure, which does OSHA indicate should occur first? Engineering controls Operations that employ workers who must comply with the 29 CFR 1910. regulations do not include which of the following? Correct Risk analysis of hazardous chemical releases Which governmental body is responsible for safety at a hazardous waste site? OSHA Complete enclosure of a sandblast operation is an example of. Engineering controls Is the use of "common sense" a good practice to protect a worker from exposure to hazards? False Using steam cleaning instead of solvent-based cleaning is an example of. Engineering Wearing a respirator to remove toxic vapors from your breathing air is an example of which of the following? PPE Which of the following is not an element of the Hazard Communication Standard? Respirator training Which Act has the primary responsibility for hazardous waste? Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 00:1101:
True The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals is associated with which of the following? Safety data sheets The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) regulates an industry's management of its hazardous wastes from generation to off-site disposal! True HAZWOPER is the acronym for Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response and is in the 29 CFR 1910.120. True Site characterization is performed in order to accomplish which of the following?! Assess hazards at the waste site How many members should the initial site entry team consist of including backup entry personnel? At least four Off-site characterization hazard assessment might include which of the following? All answers are correct Emergency personnel should be on standby only after the initial entry team encounters problems on the site. False When should monitoring be conducted at a hazardous waste site? Upon initial entry to identify and IDLH conditions Atmospheric monitoring is only required after the workers have entered the site. False A change in weather will not affect the hazards at a work site. False When locating a Command post, which of the following can have the greatest impact on employee safety? Wind direction The Site Health and Safety Plan should contain contingency plans for unpredictable events such as fire or physical injury. True After the plan for a hazardous waste site is implemented, it should be periodically examined to reflect any site condition changes. True The primary purpose of a site health and safety plan is which of the following? To ensure the safety and health of workers and responders Emergencies are not effected by which of the following? Location of the laboratory It is the responsibility of the personnel involved at the site to comply with the requirements of the health and safety plan. True The best policy is that instructions should be written. True
A Synergistic Effect is defined as which of the following? The exposure to two different toxic chemicals that produces a more severe effect than simply doubling the dose of wither one alone A Potentiation Effect is defined as which of the following? In some cases, a chemical without any known toxic effect may act together with a known toxic substance to make the toxic substance even more potent and more dangerous An Antagonism Effect is defined as which of the following? The interaction of two toxic chemicals may be such that the effect produced is actually less than would be expected Which of the following is common to airborne hazards? The normally enter the body through breathing A chemical that deprives the victim's tissues of oxygen is which of the following? Asphyxiate Which exposure route is most likely to cause the immediate response of a burned esophagus to appear? Ingestion Ceiling Limit (C) is the level that should never be exceeded in the workplace without correct procedures and protective equipment. True How can chemicals enter your bloodstream? All answers are correct How much a worker is affected by an exposure to a chemical may depend upon. All answers are correct Which type of airborne hazard probably results from grinding clean, dry metal parts? Dust Chronic exposures are possible in hazardous waste sites True Which of the following is not a method of identifying hazardous materials? Panels with an ID number An irritant can cause which of the following? Skin to itch upon contact A cryogen can cause which of the following? Freeze the skin on contact A Target organ chemical can cause which of the following? Liver damage A Sensitizer can cause which of the following? Allergic-like responses A Carcinogen can cause which of the following? Cancer A Teratogen can cause which of the following?! Damage fetus development A Mutagen can cause which of the following? Damage to Genes in sperm and egg cells
- The NFPA 704 - M system (hazard diamonds) identifies the hazards of materials in terms of excluding the 4th category.
Reactivity, health and flammability A hazard is defined as which of the following? The capability of something causing you harm Risk can be defined as which of the following? The probability and severity of a hazard The white section of the NFPA 704 - M hazard diamond provides information for which of the following? Special hazards The blue section of the NFPA sign designates which hazard?! Health The number "4" in the red section of the NFPA sign indicates the material is which of the following? Extremely flammable The yellow section of the NFPA sign indicates the material is which of the following? Reactive Everyone working in an area that has hazardous substances must recognize and understand the potential health safety hazards involved in their work assignments. Training is required and documentation of that training is which of the following? Mandatory Being struck by an object or moving machine part would be considered as which of the following?! Kinetic / mechanical hazard Strong management commitment is a vital part of safety.! True Upon arriving at a large warehouse, you notice an NFPA sign. The term "OX" appears in the lower (white) quadrant of that sign. This term indicated that oxygen supplying respirator protection must be worn to enter the building.! False Noise is always consideration when evaluating hazards. False Safe work practices are important in hazardous waste operations. True An unsafe condition can also be a physical hazard. True A Job Hazard Analysis is performed to determine which of the following? Unsafe worker conditions An unsafe condition, such as wet floors or broken equipment, could be described as which of the following? Physical hazard Heat stroke and hypothermia are examples of which of the following? Thermal stress Which of the following forms of radiation will generally not penetrate intact skin but can be a serious hazard if ingested or inhaled? Alpha What can you do to protect yourself from Gamma ionizing radiation exposure? Limit your time of exposure to radiation
The class of respiratory protection that is not recommended for use in hazardous atmosphere containing less that 19.5% oxygen is which of the following? Air-purifying respirator You must have an emergency pack of air when wearing a supplied air respirator True Select the best answer relating to atmosphere supplied respirators. Atmosphere supplied respirators are the best protection against IDLH respiratory hazards What three variables must be identified before air-purifying respirators can be considered for use? Identity of hazard, hazard concentration, oxygen content In an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life and health, the best respiratory protection is which of the following?! Self-contained, positive pressure demand breathing apparatus Only your lungs can be damaged when breathing toxic chemicals. False It is acceptable to wear a dust mask as protection against spray paint vapors. False The primary purpose of quantitative or qualitative fit testing is to identify the specific model, make, and size of respirator that best suites each person. False A person's eyes are better protected by which of the following respirators? Full face Methanol has a TLV of 200 ppm; the odor of methanol is not detected until a concentration of 2000 ppm in air is reached. For protection, the best respirator to wear is which of the following? A SAR with escape bottle It is permissible to modify a respirator to make a different brand of cartridge to fit the respirator. False Select the incorrect statement relating to respirators. You must wear contact lenses instead of glasses when wearing any type of respirator MUC stands for which of the following? Maximum use concentration A respirator fit check consisting of covering the cartridge openings and inhaling for 5 to 10 seconds to feel the mask pulling snugly against the face is called a negative pressure fit check. True Positive-pressure atmosphere-supplying respirators are designed to maintain a positive pressure in the facepiece during both inhalation and exhalation. True Chemical "X" has an odor threshold of 150 ppm and a TLV of 75 ppm, what is the significance of this information? The TLV exposure is reached before you are able to smell the chemical The monitoring requirements for an employee dressed in Level A PPE require which of the following?
Oral temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, body weight loss (water) Using Level C personal protective equipment includes which of the following?! Wearing an air-purifying respirator The Level of Protection that provides the highest degree of respiratory and skin protection against gases and vapors is? Level A A written comprehensive PPE program should include? Medical monitoring, Hazard identification, Decontamination procedures Selection of chemical protective clothing will depend on the chemicals present and the tasks to be accomplished.! True Heat stress on the human body includes both "heat exhaustion" and "heat stroke." Which statement about "heat stroke" is true? Heat stroke is a life-threatening emergency Over-protection and under-protection can be hazardous and should be considered carefully when selecting chemical protective clothing. True Selection of a chemical resistant glove is intended to protect the wearer. Against specific chemicals Chemical reactions can degrade some protective clothing. True Which of the following factors regarding PPE utilization can the wearer directly control? Type of protective ensemble selected Wearing Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) prevents what route of exposure to hazardous materials? Skin Heat Stress is a concern for workers only in the summer months False Which of the following is least likely to make heat stress worse?! High wind velocity Knowing the specific hazards involved in the job is important even though you are wearing protective clothing.! True Air supply consumption when using a SCBA depends on which of the following? Fitness, body size, work rate, breathing pattern The ensemble of equipment referred to as Level A protection is generally the minimum level recommended for an initial entry until the site hazards have been further identified.! True Level D protective ensembles provide no protection to a worker at all. False Class C helmets provide protection for which of the following? Impact hazards, limited chemical The following protective equipment is required for a worker handling toxic chemicals that when dispensed or handled may splash. All of the answers are correct
Command post, worker rest area, medical station Site security should provide all of the following except? Prevent increased hazards Which is the highest priority during an emergency decontamination involving a chemically contaminated worker who is seriously injured? Immediate emergency treatment of the victim Which of the following situations is the hardest to remove during decontamination? Chemicals permeated into PPE material What is the minimum level of protection that decontamination personnel should wear during decontamination of returning field personnel? One level lower protection as workers in the Exclusion Zone The best decontamination procedure is which of the following? Not to get contaminated at all The decontamination procedure discussed in class has how many steps? 6 steps Decontamination takes place in which of the following zones? Contamination Reduction Zone A Responder's PPE apparel may become contaminated while working at a hazardous substance incident by which of the following? All of the answers are correct Decontamination of equipment and PPE is generally not dependent on which of the following? The overall cost The most important factor to consider when deciding upon decontamination methods is which of the following? The type of contaminant involved A low pressure warning alarm sounds on a SCBA unit, what should the worker do? Signal your partner and get out of the hazard area as soon as possible Decontamination procedures must be developed and implemented. Before anyone enters a hot zone work site A decontamination plan will have which of the following elements? Methods and procedures, type of decon station, disposal methods, written plan Which is the highest priority during an emergency decontamination involving a chemically contaminated worker who has minor injuries? Decontamination of the injured worker before transportation to the hospital Encapsulated suits should be checked for deficiencies before they are used True Protective clothing and respirators can help prevent worker contamination True In an emergency the primary concern is the protection of property False Rescuers do not have to take measures to prevent the spread of contamination False What is the primary purpose of a medical surveillance program? Assess and monitor a worker's health before employment as well as during the course of employment
Other than the individual examinee, who has access to an individual's medical records? A designee of the individual Under the record keeping requirements of the OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard, the employer must maintain and preserve medical records of a worker's exposure to hazardous materials for what period of time? For the term of employment, plus 30 years How often should a Team Member be examined according to federal regulations? Upon entering, on a periodic basis; following appearance of symptoms that indicate exposure; and upon termination from a Hazardous Materials Team Why is assessment of the cardiovascular system an important part of a baseline medical surveillance exam? It identifies people with cardiovascular risk factors so they will not be permitted to use personal protective equipment including respirators Who is required to pay for work-related medical surveillance exams? The employer Which statement about medical exams is false? All medical conditions must be reported to the employer by the examining physician whether or not they affect work performance Which of the following is the most important relating to heat stroke? Professional medical treatment must be administered as soon as possible Medical program management should encourage employees to participate in which of the following? All of the answers are correct The most effective first aid treatment for heat exhaustion is which of the following? Take the victim to a cooler area and lay them down to allow blood to return to the head quickly Which of the following is not an element of a hazardous waste site medical program? Assessing and assigning the correct site control at the work site Which of the following is not a component of an employee medical program?! Recreation Which of the following is the most serious of the health problem caused by heat? Heat stroke All medical conditions must be reported to the employer by the examining physician whether or not they affect work performance. False According to OSHA standards, any hazardous waste site worker that wears a respirator more than 30 days a year must enter into the medical surveillance program. True
. According to OSHA, employees who are required to wear respirators should have a medical evaluation prior to using a respirator.! True The employer can require that workers take a pre-placement medical examination as a condition of employment True
Selectivity (specificity) is the ability of an instrument to detect and measure a specific chemical or class of chemicals. True The LEL value is the explosive limit at the upper concentration of a flammable compound. False Sampling techniques can include both area and personal sampling. True Temperature, ambient pressure, and humidity have no effect on the accuracy of results for active sampling. False An integrated sample is collected when the results will be compared to an OSHA PEL. True Calibration is required for stain indicator tubes. False The oxygen content of normal air at sea level is approximately 20.9 percent and the partial pressure of oxygen is 159 mm Hg. True An scintillation radiation monitoring instrument can detect Alpha radiation. True Data obtained from air monitoring instruments is not useful for which of the following? Determining which brand of respirator will be used by a worker Two types of personal sampling systems are which of the following?! Passive sampling & Active sampling What Subpart under OSHA standards contains at least 28 substances and requires a personal sampling plan to be initiated for waste site workers? Subpart Z In addition to mechanical pumps, what else is required in order to get active sampling system results?! A laboratory to analyze collection media The following may be used for passive sampling except for which one? Air pump-sample medium samplers Advantages of passive samplers include all except which of the following? A pump is required Radiation dosimeters only detect alpha and beta radiation. False Temperature and humidity have no effect on the accuracy (results) of passive samplers. False Calibration is required for all personal monitors. False Personal dosimeters must always be direct reading. False Passive samplers are all direct reading. False Which of the following should be avoided while sampling drums? Leaning over one drum to reach another
A sampling plan has all of the following elements except for which of the following? Emergency spill response information Generally samples should be kept at until they are sent to the lab.! 4° C Air monitoring is required during which of the following? Until site cleanup is complete Sampling drums requires which of the following? Follow a carefully documented plan Drums that are suspected of having very flammable or contact detonation chemicals should be opened with which of the following type of tools? Brass Sample labels should have which of the following? Date & time, preservative, name of person, analysis, sample ID A sample is considered not to be in a person's custody if it is: Out of view and unsecure Chain of custody standard operating procedures do not apply to environmental sampling procedures. False Sample locations do not need to be logged into an official site document. False Over pumping a well can alter groundwater flow or affect the movement of contaminants. True Sampling can be one of the most dangerous activities on a hazardous waste site. The process of opening and sampling a hazardous waste container may place workers in direct contact with unidentified waste. True The volume of purged water to be removed should be specified in the sampling plan. An alternative to volume-based removal is to monitor the water level, temperature, conductivity, and pH, as the well is purged. True Drum and container sampling is not a hazardous activities to a worker's safety and health because it involves sampling of materials that are contained. False A COLIWASA is a devise used to collect a sample of hazardous wastes, liquids, slurry- type sludge's and semi-solids from drums. True Wells may be purged using a variety of equipment, including a gas pressure displacement system, a submersible pump, and a peristaltic pump. True A split spoon sampler is generally used to sample liquids False Samples taken from within the Exclusion Zone do not follow a written sampling plan. False Lockout/Tagout procedures provide the worker protection from which of the following? Mechanical hydraulic equipment failures
Carbon monoxide, oxygen, flammability, toxicity The OSHA definition for a confined space contains which of the following? Not intended for habitation, limited means of entry and exit, can enter and perform work Which of the following confined space rescue procedures is considered the most advantageous? Self-rescue Whose job responsibility is it to summon emergency medical assistance in the event of a medical problem? Attendant Prior to entering a permit required confined space which of the following should be implemented? Personnel are trained, permit is issued, air monitoring conducted, Correct PPE is used Ventilation should be used prior to entry into a confined space for one of the following? A flammable atmosphere exists Monitoring prior to entering a confined space must be completed in the following sequence: Oxygen deficiency, flammability, toxins The leading cause of death in a confined space is which of the following Oxygen deficiency Written procedures for working in a confined space will provide the step by step procedures for which of the following? All of the answers are correct A permit-required confined space has which of the following? Oxygen levels below 19.5%, A hazardous atmosphere, flammable atmosphere, IDLH atmosphere A permit required confined space has all the following characteristics except? No occupational hazards are present Explosions are the main cause of death in confined spaces. False Rescue workers must have a permit to enter a confined space. False Proper written procedures are important for confined space entry. True In addition to cave-ins, other hazards associated with excavations include which of the following? Water accumulation, falls and equipment, hazardous atmospheres All of the following are site conditions that need to be addressed prior to beginning an excavation project except which one? Building structure type The following are methods of protecting workers in excavations except which one of the following? Fencing When employees are required to work in a trench excavation 4 feet deep or deeper, OSHA regulations require ladders, steps, or other safe means of egress to be provided. Every 25 feet of lateral travel OSHA's standards for trenching and excavation can be found in which of the following?
29 CFR 1926.
According to OSHA, employers are responsible for which of the following? All of the answers are correct A primary hazard that kills or injuries most workers in excavation work is. Cave-ins An excavation deeper than 20 feet must have the approval of which of the following? A professional engineer The types of soils evaluated to ensure that excavations are as safe as possible is which of the following? Type a, type b, type c The excavation slope angle for all classification of soils is the same. False According to OSHA construction standards, a trench is a narrow excavation made below the surface of the ground in which the depth is greater that the width, the width does not exceed 15 feet.! True Soil mechanics is important to consider before designing protective systems such as benching, sloping, and shoring.! True According to OSHA, the employer is responsible for providing safe access and egress from excavations. True A competent person must have specific training, must be capable of identifying hazards, and authorized to immediately eliminate hazards and must have the authority to take appropriate corrective actions. True A responsibility of a competent person does not include being present when workers are in a trench. False During an on-site emergency, which of the following is the best evacuation procedure Upwind at a designated mustering site that is independent of the type and amount of chemical released At all hazardous material spill response situations, which of the following has the highest priority? Protection of human health, life, and safety Whenever possible, response to a hazardous materials release should always be from? Upwind Site evacuation routes should exclude which of the following? Routes should be downwind from the site as much as possible Which of the following should not be kept at the on-site safety station? Food supplies Emergency response plans should address elements that include the following except. Site security and control, safe distance & refuge, configuration of chemical laboratory It is important for responders to gather as much information as feasible for the hazardous material that is involved in an accident before taking further action because? All of the answers are correct
