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Nursing Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

Brunel University LondonNursing

Nursing exam questions and their corresponding answers. The questions cover various topics such as cardiovascular diseases, metabolic bone diseases, contraceptives, B cell deficiency, and more. The answers are verified by an expert. useful for nursing students who are preparing for their exams or for healthcare professionals who want to refresh their knowledge on these topics.

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2023/2024

Available from 02/01/2024

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3P NURSING EXAM QUESTION WITH RIGHT
ANSWERS VERIFIED BY AN EXPERT.
1. You are auscultating Jon's chest. When he sits up and leans forward, you can
hear a high pitched, blowing murmur at S2. What does this type of murmur most
likely indicate?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic Stenosis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Aortic regurgitation - Correct answer d. Aortic regurgitation
2. Aortic regurg is soft, high pitched, blowing diastolic decrescendo that best heard
at the 3rd left interspace at base. Murmur initiated w/ S2 and heard when Pt sits
up and leans forward. Mitral Stenosis= low pitched diastolic rumble & doesn't
radiate. Best heard in apex when in left lateral position. Aortic stenosis= loud,
harsh murmur midsystole, radiated down the side of neck and down apex. Mitral
regurg= loud blowing murmur heard at apex and is pansystolic.
3. Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of
osteoporosis?
a. Bone deformity
b. Bone pain
c. Pathologic fracture
d. Fat embolism - Correct answer a. Bone deformity
4. most common metabolic bone disease, is chronic, progressive, & systemic; Low
bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, = leads to increased skeletal fragility
& deformity. Osteoporosis usually not apparent until AFTER a fracture; 2/3 of
vertebral fractures are painless. Fat embolism from fat obstruction d/t injury or
trauma & not common in osteoporosis.
5. A male patient requests a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to treat erectile
dysfunction. Which of the following is appropriate?
a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity
will take place two or more times per week.
b. Vardenafil (Levitra), 5 mg, may be taken with a high-fat meal four hours
before sexual activity
c. Sildenafil (Viagra), 50 mg, may be taken one hour before sexual activity as
long as the patient has a resting blood pressure below 170/110 mm Hg
d. Avanafil (Stendra) is recommended at 50 mg for all patients, and may be
taken 30 minutes before sexual activity. - Correct answer a. Tadalafil
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Download Nursing Exam Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

3P NURSING EXAM QUESTION WITH RIGHT

ANSWERS VERIFIED BY AN EXPERT.

  1. You are auscultating Jon's chest. When he sits up and leans forward, you can hear a high pitched, blowing murmur at S2. What does this type of murmur most likely indicate? a. Mitral stenosis b. Aortic Stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. Aortic regurgitation - Correct answer d. Aortic regurgitation
  2. Aortic regurg is soft, high pitched, blowing diastolic decrescendo that best heard at the 3rd left interspace at base. Murmur initiated w/ S2 and heard when Pt sits up and leans forward. Mitral Stenosis= low pitched diastolic rumble & doesn't radiate. Best heard in apex when in left lateral position. Aortic stenosis= loud, harsh murmur midsystole, radiated down the side of neck and down apex. Mitral regurg= loud blowing murmur heard at apex and is pansystolic.
  3. Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis? a. Bone deformity b. Bone pain c. Pathologic fracture d. Fat embolism - Correct answer a. Bone deformity
  4. most common metabolic bone disease, is chronic, progressive, & systemic; Low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, = leads to increased skeletal fragility & deformity. Osteoporosis usually not apparent until AFTER a fracture; 2/3 of vertebral fractures are painless. Fat embolism from fat obstruction d/t injury or trauma & not common in osteoporosis.
  5. A male patient requests a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following is appropriate? a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity will take place two or more times per week. b. Vardenafil (Levitra), 5 mg, may be taken with a high-fat meal four hours before sexual activity c. Sildenafil (Viagra), 50 mg, may be taken one hour before sexual activity as long as the patient has a resting blood pressure below 170/110 mm Hg d. Avanafil (Stendra) is recommended at 50 mg for all patients, and may be taken 30 minutes before sexual activity. - Correct answer a. Tadalafil

(Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity will take place two or more times per week.

  1. Which of the following is NOT part of Virchow's Triad? a. Hypercoagulability b. Damage to endothelial cells c. Sympathetic tone d. Turbulent blood flow - Correct answer c. Sympathetic tone
  2. Virchow's triad is a method of describing the three main factors that lead to a thrombosis -- sympathetic tone is not one of those and doesn't affect blood clotting.
  3. Hypercoagulability does lead to clotting, including malignancy, trauma, sepsis, and thrombophilia. Endothelial cell damage is part of Virchow's triad bc it causes blood to clot by promoting platelet adherence to the wall of the vessels; vascular wall injury is the second aspect of Virchow's triad. Lastly, turbulent blood flow is a constituent of circulatory stasis the third component of the triad, which can be caused by atrial fibrillation, venous obstruction, and ventricular dysfunction
  4. A patient with kidney stones also presents with hypercalcemia and mental confusion. The practitioner should evaluate the patient for which of the following? a. Cushing Syndrome b. Conn's Syndrome c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Addison's disease - Correct answer c. Hyperparathyroidism
  5. Which of the following statements is true regarding contraceptives? a. Because oral contraceptives may cause harm to the fetus, they are pregnancy category X drugs in pregnancy. b. Oral contraceptives are linked to the promotion of ovarian, endometrial, and breast cancer. c. By increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives may increase blood pressure. d. Oral contraceptives may reduce the effects of theophylline, benzodiazepines, and tricyclic antidepressants - Correct answer c. By increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives may increase blood pressure.
  6. estrogen promotes aldosterone production= sodium retention & HTN. Also believed stimulates hepatic production of angiotensinogen, affecting renal system via elevated angiotensin & BP. OCP are category X, but because serve no use, decrease incidence of ovarian and endometrial ca and don't increase risk of breast ca. OCP containing progestin may enhance effects of theophylline, benzos, and tricyclic antidepressants by decreasing clearance.

c. Breast tenderness d. Irregular bleeding - Correct answer d. Irregular bleeding

  1. For the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis, the nurse practitioner knows that: a. First-line therapy typically involves an immunomodulator b. Natalizumab is one of the safest drugs to use as initial therapy c. A patient using interferon-beta products would have to have renal function monitored. d. Fingolimod is given intravenously for patients with resistant remitting- relapsing multiple sclerosis. - Correct answer a. First-line therapy typically involves an immune modulator
  2. therapy begins with interferon-beta products (fingolimod, glatiramer, natalizumab) which are immune modulator. Natalizumab limited (assoc w/ infections in brain) are used if others don't work. Meds are hepatotoxic and need liver function monitoring. Fingolimod is 1st ORAL disease modifying med approved for MS.
  3. Which of these are unique features of aripiprazole (Abilify)? a. It causes hyperprolactinemia and gynecomastia as side effects. b. It is a dopamine system stabilizer with affects against schizophrenia, mania, and agitation. c. It causes agranulocytosis, which may be fatal; patient monitoring is necessary d. It induces diabetes and myocarditis in certain patients - Correct answer b. It is a dopamine system stabilizer with affects against schizophrenia, mania, and agitation.
  4. All of the following facial movements are still possible after a cerebrovascular accident except: a. Raising the eyebrows b. Wrinkling the forehead c. Raising both sides of the mouth d. Closing both eyes - Correct answer c. Raising both sides of the mouth
  5. Which of the following is a characteristic of Somogyi effect? a. It is characterized by an early morning rise in blood glucose, with no hypoglycemia during the night. b. It is more common in type 2 diabetics c. It presents with a combination of hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia.

d. It is more common in elderly patients with poorly controlled blood sugars. - Correct answer c. It presents with a combination of hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia

  • Nocturnal hypoglycemia stimulates hyperglycemia counter- regulation in am. No hypoglycemia in night is Dawn phenomenon, more common in T1DM, esp children w/ T1DM
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of B cell deficiency? a. Inability to fight off cancer cells. b. Inability to make antibodies c. Increased incidence of granulomas d. Increased incidence of anemia - Correct answer b. Inability to make antibodies
  2. When counseling a pregnant patient on drug use during pregnancy, it is important that the nurse practitioner advises her: a. "The placenta provides a good protective barrier for your baby against almost all drugs you might ingest." b. "The placenta will screen out most harmful drugs, so they will never reach significant levels in your baby." c. "The placenta will protect your baby against narcotic exposure, but all other drugs will permeate within 15 minutes to an hour." d. "The placenta is a barrier as far as time is concerned only- ultimately, your baby will be exposed to any drug that you take." - Correct answer d. "The placenta is a barrier as far as time is concerned only- ultimately, your baby will be exposed to any drug that you take."
  3. Assuming these do not present with symptoms other than those stated, antibiotic use is most likely to be appropriate for which of the following patients? a. The 2-year-old with onset of mucopurulent rhinitis two days ago b. The 10-year-old with dry cough lasting 7 days c. The 60-year-old with clear rhinorrhea for 3 weeks. d. The 5-year-old with cough and mucopurulent rhinitis for 3 weeks - Correct answer d. The 5-year-old with cough and mucopurulent rhinitis for 3 weeks
  4. In a patient diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone, the nurse practitioner would expect to find which of the following? a. Solute retention and water retention b. Solute retention and water loss c. Solute dilution and water retention d. Solute dilution and water loss - Correct answer c. Solute dilution and water retention

c. Females d. Adults over the age of 65 - Correct answer c. Females- Azole can cause in Men and women, but 2-3x more common in Women. Prolonged QT interval is 10 microseconds longer in women= more recorded dysrhythmias. Isoproterenol is beta agonist used in tx of torsades & no significant interaction w/ azoles. African Americans less susceptible to torsades than Caucasians, & most common ages 35-50.

  1. Which of the following is the most effective agent to help a patient with insomnia that involves both difficulty falling asleep and maintaining sleep? a. Triazolam (Halcion) b. Zolpidem (Ambien CR) c. Zaleplon (Sonata) d. Ramelteon (Rozerem) - Correct answer b. Zolpidem (Ambien CR)
  2. Which of the following is not a step in the Hirschberg test? a. Shine a light towards patient's eyes to assess parallel alignment b. Assess reflection of light on the corneas c. Hold the light about 12 inches from the patient d. Ask the patient to stare straight ahead at your nose - Correct answer d. Ask the patient to stare straight ahead at your nose
  3. Asking patient to stare at the nose is one of the steps of the COVER test, which assesses muscle weakness in the eye. The Hirschberg test is designed to assess symmetry of the light reflex within the corneas. It is performed by shining a light towards the patient's eyes and directing them to stare ahead as the nurse holds the light 12 inches away. Symmetrical light reflection in the eye indicates that they eye muscles are properly aligned.
  4. Which of he following statements is true regarding atopic dermatitis? a. The diagnosis of atopic dermatitis is typically based on clinical history and presentation of symptoms. b. Immunoglobulin M levels are usually elevated in the patient c. Histamine is a major pruritogen in atopic dermatitis d. It has no influence on the development of the other allergic diseases. - Correct answer a. The diagnosis of atopic dermatitis is typically based on clinical history and presentation of symptoms.
  5. The practitioner enrolls a patient for a Phase 3 drug trial. Which of the following is an appropriate statement to tell this patient? a. "I realize you do not have the disease this drug treats, but your participation will give us valuable information." b. "You have a better chance of getting a placebo agent than a real drug to treat this disease." c. "Make sure you tell me about any side effects you feel while in this study."

d. "Birth defects and cancers have been reported in patients in this trial." - Correct answer c. "Make sure you tell me about any side effects you feel while in this study."

  1. Select the true statement below: a. Chronic lymphomas do not respond well to chemotherapy due to slow progression b. Stage III lymphomas are far more treatable than stage I c. Lymphomas are more common in children than adults. d. Acute leukemias occur primarily in childhood and are rarely seen in older adults - Correct answer a. Chronic lymphomas do not respond well to chemotherapy due to slow progression-
  2. don't respond well to chemo and may have unpredictable blast phase, culminating in death. Stage I are more differentiated and easier to treat, Lymphomas are more common in adults, acute leukemias increase in incidence dramatically after age 60.
  3. A child presents with a community acquired viral pneumonia. Presenting signs and symptoms will include: a. Mild to high fever, cough, rhinorrhea, crackles, rhonchi, and wheezes b. High fever, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain c. Decreased breath sounds in areas of consolidation and dyspnea d. Increased respiratory rate and respiratory alkalosis - Correct answer a. Mild to high fever, cough, rhinorrhea, crackles, rhonchi, and wheezes-
  4. wheezing esp more common in children w/ viral CAP. Productive cough may be present, by pleuritic chest pain more w/ bacterial CAP, decreased breath sounds, dyspnea also more with bacterial CAP. Inc resp rathe and resp alkalosis not usually hallmark sx of CAP.
  5. Jenny, age 32, comes into the clinic complaining of severe acid reflux. When taking her health history, you try to identify aggravating factors and things that make the pain a little more manageable. Jenny tells you that when she remains active and doesn't lie down, the pain almost completely disappears. Which part of the PQRSTU method is designed to acquire information about what makes the symptoms worse? a. T b. S c. Q d. P - Correct answer d. P-

a. Performance anxiety b. Migraine prophylaxis c. Reduction of perioperative mortality d. Insulin induced hypoglycemia - Correct answer d. Insulin induced hypoglycemia.-

  1. will not aid, more likely to retard recovery. Low dose can be used for performance enhancement, treat migraines, and decrease perioperative mortality of cardiac Pts.
  2. A patient presents with pustular lesions on her perineum and groin. She has some oral mucous membranes lesions, a warty rash on her hands and feet, lymphadenopathy, and pruritis. A presumptive diagnosis would be: a. Herpes simplex b. Syphilis c. Chlamydia d. Trichomonas - Correct answer b. Syphilis
  3. A patient who has suffered a cerebrovascular accident has speech dysphasia involving word finding and difficulty writing. Which area of the brain has most likely been affected? a. Parietal lobe b. Left frontal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Limbic system. - Correct answer b. Left frontal lobe-
  4. Broca's area is in left frontal lobe is one of language centers= non fluency w/ sparse output, agrammatism, impaired repetition, affects writing r/t to speech. Parietal lobe= agnosia, Temporal lobe = word deafness, limbic = emotional instability
  5. Sally, age 46, comes to your practice concerned about a lump in her breast that appeared within the past few days. She is very worried that is may be cancerous and says that the lump is tender and moves around when she touches it. Based on Sally's description of the lump, what is most likely true? a. Masses that are tender and movable are typically benign b. It is most likely fibroadenoma c. Masses that are tender and moveable are typically malignant d. The lump can likely be diagnosed with a routine physical exam. - Correct answer a. Masses that are tender and movable are typically benign
  6. In which part of the lung fields should vesicular breath sounds be noted? a. Anterior chest

b. Peripheral lung fields c. Anterior bifurcation of the mainstream bronchi d. Posterior chest. - Correct answer b. Peripheral lung fields

  • hear vesicular here, low, soft like, sound of wind in trees. Anterior- bronchial breath sounds= high & loud (harsh, hollow, tubular), anterior bifurcation = bronchovesicular sounds which also hear in posterior chest & are soft/ tubular.
  1. For managing breakthrough pain in the opioid tolerant cancer patient already receiving around the clock opioids: a. Transmucosal fentanyl (Actiq) or immediate release oral morphine would be considered first choice medications. b. Based on the equianalgesic table, the dosage of opioid to manage this pain should be half the total daily opioid dose c. Dosing of the breakthrough pain medication should be repeated every 6 hours on a fixed schedule. d. Breakthrough pain should be managed with nonpharmacologic means or acetaminophen. - Correct answer a. Transmucosal fentanyl (Actiq) or immediate release oral morphine would be considered first choice medications.
    1. Which of the following is most likely to be effective in the treatment of acute cluster headaches? a. 6 mg subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan b. 300 mg acetaminophen c. 40 mg riboflavin d. 240 mg verapamil. - Correct answer a. 6 mg subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan-
  3. correct drug and dose for cluster HA; verapamil & APAP not indicated for cluster, but verapamil can be used as prophylaxis for migraines. Riboflavin is for migraines, but dose is 400 not 40.
  4. Which of the following is of true intention tremors? a. Resembles a snake-like movement b. Becomes worse with voluntary movement c. Disappears with sleep d. Disappears with voluntary movement - Correct answer b. Becomes worse with voluntary movement
    1. Kussmaul respirations are best defined by which of the following?
  1. You are examining the neurologic system of Ethel, age 72. Which of the following questions would be most effective in identifying Ethel's memory and ability to learn new information? a. "Can you repeat cup, book, highlighter, pencil?" b. "What year were you born?" c. "What did you do yesterday?" d. "Can you repeat choose, lose, crews, snooze?" - Correct answer a. "Can you repeat cup, book, highlighter, pencil?"
  2. Which of the following is a correctly written prescription for meloxicam? a. With milk or food, take meloxicam 7.5 mg orally, once daily, for 10 days b. Meloxicam 7.5 mg for 10 days, one capsule orally, once a day with 8 ox of liquid, c. Take Meloxicam 7.5 mg orally with milk or food, once daily, for 10 days. d. Meloxicam 7.5 mg, one capsule orally per day, for 10 days. Take with milk or food. - Correct answer d. Meloxicam 7.5 mg, one capsule orally per day, for 10 days. Take with milk or food.
  3. With respect to multiple sclerosis, which of the following is true? a. This condition has its onset commonly between the ages of 60-80 ears old b. The most common form of multiple sclerosis is relapsing-remitting c. The first step in the disease is the breakdown of the axons of neurons. d. Patients with the spinal type of multiple sclerosis rarely have bowel or bladder symptoms. - Correct answer b. The most common form of multiple sclerosis is relapsing-remitting
  4. Which type of bowel sound is most often associated with a perforated, acute abdomen? a. Hypoactive
  5. b. High-pitched sounds
  6. c. Harsh sounds
  7. d. Hyperactive. - Correct answer a. Hypoactive-
  8. associated w/ decreased movement in intestines, after surgery, peritoneum is inflamed, or perforated acute abdomen. Harsh= bruits/ arterial sounds from atherosclerotic lesions in vessels, hyperactive= loud, high pitched tinking = increased motility w/ gastroenteritis, diarrhea, laxative use, paralytic ileus.
  9. A patient presents with chronic neuropathic pain in his feet secondary to type 2 diabetes. Of the following, the best therapeutic choice would be: a. Phenobarbital (Luminal) b. Carbidopa (Lodosyn) c. Tiaganine (Gabitril)

d. Gabapentin (Neurontin) - Correct answer d. Gabapentin (Neurontin)

  1. A child presents with congenital phenylketonuria. Which statement is true regarding this disease? a. The nucleus if red blood cells is defective in this disorder b. This disease is due to a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase c. This disease is an X-linked disorder seen in male offspring d. This disease is passed from fathers to sons on sex chromosomes - Correct answer b. This disease is due to a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase
  2. When Bethanechol is administered, its main effect is to a. Cause relaxation of the bladder's detrusor muscle to relieve bladder cramping b. Cause contraction of the urinary sphincter to eliminate urinary incontinence c. Cause contraction of the bladder's detrusor muscle to foster voiding d. Cause urinary retention and constriction of the trigone. - Correct answer c. Cause contraction of the bladder's detrusor muscle to foster voiding- stimulates gastric motility. Contracts the detrusor muscle, relaxes urinary sphincter. Treats urinary retention, does NOT constrict trigone.
  3. Sara, age 24, is rushed to the hospital after having elevated blood pressure, chills, and vomiting. She also has trouble walking and her pupils are dilated. After doing a blood test, you find that Sarah has been using cocaine recently. Which of her symptoms is not common for people under the influence of cocaine? a. Dilated pupils b. Inability to walk c. Elevated blood pressure d. Vomiting - Correct answer b. Inability to walk
  4. Endometriosis is most likely caused by which of the following? a. Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones. c. Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases. d. Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate it's growth - Correct answer b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.

a. Less gastrointestinal upset b. Less rebound stuffiness upon discontinuance c. Less headaches d. Less daytime sedation - Correct answer d. Less daytime sedation

  1. When a practitioner initiates therapy with a second-generation antipsychotic, which of the following is appropriate? a. A baseline measurement of waist circumference should be recorded b. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be recorded. c. A baseline liver function test should be recorded. d. A red blood cell count should be recorded. - Correct answer a. A baseline measurement of waist circumference should be recorded-
  2. can cause increase in weight gain and new onset diabetes. Typically do not influence BP or liver enzymes. Do not affect RBC's directly.
    1. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension and cardiac remodeling seen in heart failure? a. Increased epinephrine b. Natriuretic peptides c. Angiotensin II d. Insulin resistance - Correct answer c. Angiotensin II
  4. "black box" warnings are included with the drug salmeterol because: a. The patient may experience neuropsychiatric side effects, including suicidal thoughts b. It may cause prolonged bleeding. c. It will not abort an acute asthma attack. d. The patient may develop respiratory infections. - Correct answer
  5. Which condition is tested by direct percussion at the median nerve of the wrist? a. Bulge sign b. Phalen's test c. Tinel's sign d. Carpal compression - Correct answer c. Tinel's sign-
  6. percussing over median nerve. Phalens= wrists/ hands together at 90 with numbness/ tingling present, compression is sustained pressure not percussion. Bulge- check for small effusions in suprapatellar pouch.
  7. Cecilia, age 56, comes into the clinic with severe abdominal cramping. During the physical exam, you ask her to lie on her back, and you press into her abdomen

about 2-3 inches to determine the skin surface and musculature. Which test are you performing? a. Deep Palpation b. Blumberg's sign c. Light palpation d. Voluntary guarding - Correct answer a. Deep Palpation-

  1. checks for abdominal muscles, Blumberg's slowly push in and rapid pull back, light palpation is 1 cm, guarding judges rigidity of muscles d/t involuntarily movement.
  2. When iliopsoas test is positive, the person experiences which of the following complaints? a. No symptoms at all b. Pain in the lower right quadrant c. Pain in the lower left quadrant d. A burning sensation in the esophagus - Correct answer b. Pain in the lower right quadrant
  3. Which of the following is an example of supination? a. The NP moves a patient's leg upward b. The NP externally rotates a patient's body part, such as the leg at the hip c. The NP internally rotates a patient's body part, such as the leg at the hip d. The NP practitioner moves a patient's leg away from the body. - Correct answer a. The NP moves a patient's leg upward- turning body part upward, turning forearm so palm up or elevating leg upward. Internal rotation moves part inward; external rotation moves part externally; Limb away is abduction
  4. A patient with hepatic encephalopathy is most at risk of death due to: a. Synthesis of ammonia by brain cells b. Toxicity of ammonia to the central nervous system c. Renal toxicity of ammonia accumulating in the kidneys d. Bleeding of esophageal varices made weak by ammonia - Correct answer b. Toxicity of ammonia to the central nervous system
  5. The sternomastoid is innervated by cranial nerve XI and extends across the neck to behind the ear. The function of this muscle is to help rotate and flex the head. The sternomastoid muscle is associated with which lymph node? a. Superficial cervical b. Posterior auricular c. Jugulodigastric d. Posterior cervical - Correct answer a. Superficial cervical

d. Demyelination of the central nervous system nerves - Correct answer a. Cerebrospinal fluid high in protein (500 mg/dl) without cellular abnormality- Most will have when it is viral or bacterial. Acetylcholine is not affected by GBS, effect on DTR's or numbness/ paralysis will be symmetric, demyelination of peripheral nerve system NOT CNS

  1. Jully, age 33, has a blood pressure of 134/80 mmHG. What do her vital signs suggest, according to ACC/AHA guidelines? a. Normal blood pressure b. Pre-hypertension c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Stage 2 hypertension. - Correct answer c. Stage 1 hypertension- Stage 1 is 130-139/ 80-89; NL is less than 120/80Stage 2 if > 140/
  2. Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome? a. Failure of the zona granulosa b. Steroid use c. Adrenal hyperplasia d. Adrenal destruction - Correct answer b. Steroid use
  3. If a patient's abdomen is protuberant but soft and non-distended, what is the most likely diagnosis? a. A hernia b. Enlarged liver c. Enlarged spleen d. Obesity - Correct answer d. Obesity
  4. Of the following, the most common cause associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is: a. Sepsis, with secretion of endotoxins from gram-negative or gram-positive bacteria b. Cancer or acute leukemia c. The placement of foreign bodies, such as balloon catheter or other medical device in the patient d. Metabolic disturbances such as diabetes or hyperglycemic shock. - Correct answer a. Sepsis, with secretion of endotoxins from gram- negative or gram-positive bacteria
  5. The most common site for hemorrhagic stroke to occur is in the: a. Cerebrovascular arteries b. Basal ganglia c. Cerebellar hemispheres

d. Pons - Correct answer b. Basal ganglia- occur most often here. Thrombotic strokes most common in cerebrovascular arteries, not common for hemorrhagic to occur in Pons or cerebellar hemispheres.

  1. The nurse practitioner is considering the use of levofloxacin in a patient with a respiratory tract infection. Which of the following in the patient's medical history would contraindicate the use of levofloxacin? a. Patient has a frequent history of urinary tract infections b. Patient has a history positive for myasthenia gravis c. Patient is 48 years old d. Patient has a history of vaginal yeast infections - Correct answer b. Patient has a history positive for myasthenia gravis
  2. You are talking to Jimmy about how he has been feeling lately. He starts to say that he has been feeing tired and before he can finish his sentence, he falls asleep. You say his name and he opens his eyes, but is inattentive and slow. How would you chart Jimmy's level of consciousness? a. Semi-coma b. Obtunded c. Delirious d. Lethargic - Correct answer d. Lethargic
  3. Of the psychiatric syndromes below, which is correctly matched to its first- line drug of choice as dictated by the Food and Drug Administration? a. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder: Fluvoxamine b. Social anxiety disorder: phenelzine c. Panic disorder: Alprazolam d. Post-traumatic stress disorder: trazodone - Correct answer a. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder: Fluvoxamine
    1. Which of the following is a true statement regarding migraines? a. These headaches typically present with an aura in most patients b. Migraines are typically bilateral, and if caught early, respond well to ice and mild analgesics. c. Premenopausal females are the largest group of migraine sufferers d. Migraines occur when macrophages attack myelin sheaths in the CNS - Correct answer c. Premenopausal females are the largest group of migraine sufferers.- menstruation is one of leading causes migraine triggers. Estrogen withdrawal with menses can be a trigger. Aura in only 20-25%, Unilateral, not bilateral, macrophages do not cause, are from triggers of stress, diet, sleeping patterns.