Download 2025 Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) Exam: Updated Guide for All Disciplines and more Exams Engineering in PDF only on Docsity!
How to Pass the 2025 Fundamentals of
Engineering (FE) Exam: Updated Guide for All
Disciplines
Question 1: Which of the following statements accurately defines "matter"? A) It can be created or destroyed. B) It is anything that occupies space and has weight. C) It is a substance that can be reduced to a simpler substance by chemical means. D) It is a combination of two or more elements chemically combined. Rationale: The correct answer is B. The text states that matter "cannot be created or destroyed, it is anything that takes up space and has weight, that is; the weight and dimensions of matter that can be measured". Question 2: What is the definition of an "element"? A) A combination of two or more atoms. B) A combination of compounds and elements, not chemically combined. C) A substance that can be reduced to a simpler substance by chemical means. D) A substance that cannot be reduced to a simpler substance by chemical means. Rationale: The correct answer is D. The text defines an "element" as "a substance that cannot be reduced to a simpler substance by chemical means". Question 3: Which of the following describes a "compound"? A) A combination of two or more atoms. B) A combination of compounds and elements, not chemically combined. C) When two or more elements are chemically combined.
D) The smallest particle of an element. Rationale: The correct answer is C. The text explains that a "compound" is "when two or more elements are chemically combined". Question 4: What is a "mixture" in scientific terms? A) A combination of two or more atoms. B) A combination of compounds and elements, not chemically combined, that can be separated by physical means. C) When two or more elements are chemically combined. D) The smallest particle of an element. Rationale: The correct answer is B. The text defines a "mixture" as "a combination of compounds and elements, not chemically combined, that can be separated by physical means". Question 5: What is the definition of a "molecule"? A) The smallest particle of an element. B) A combination of two or more atoms. C) A small negative charge of electricity. D) The force that causes current to flow through a system of wires. Rationale: The correct answer is B. The text states that a "molecule" is "a combination of two or more atoms". Question 6: Which of the following describes an "atom"? A) A small negative charge of electricity. B) Has a positive charge of electricity equal and opposite to the charge of the electron. C) The smallest particle of an element that retains its characteristics of that element. D) The movement of invisible particles that causes electrical devices to operate. Rationale: The correct answer is C. The text defines an "atom" as "the smallest particle of an element that retains its characteristics of that element". Question 7:
C) When an atom contains an equal number of protons and electrons. D) When an atom has more neutrons than protons. Rationale: The correct answer is C. The text defines the "neutral state" as "when an atom contains an equal number of protons and electrons". Question 11: Which of the following describes "magnetism"? A) The combination of voltage and current. B) The force that causes current to flow. C) The property of a material that enables it to attract pieces of iron. D) The relationship between current, voltage, and resistance. Rationale: The correct answer is C. The text defines "magnetism" as "that property of a material that enables it to attract pieces of iron". Question 12: What is "electricity"? A) The force that causes current to flow. B) The movement of invisible particles. C) The relationship between current, voltage, and resistance. D) The combination of a force called voltage and the movement of invisible particles known as current. Rationale: The correct answer is D. The text defines "electricity" as "the combination of a force called voltage and the movement of invisible particles known as current". Question 13: Which statement best describes "voltage"? A) The movement of invisible particles that causes electrical devices to operate. B) The force that causes current to flow through a system of wires.
C) The property of a material that enables it to attract pieces of iron. D) The relationship between current, voltage, and resistance. Rationale: The correct answer is B. The text defines "voltage" as "the force that causes current to flow through a system of wires" and further explains that "when these two points are connected by a conductor, electrons will flow from the negatively to the positively charged point". Question 14: What is "current" in electrical terms? A) The force that causes current to flow. B) The movement of invisible particles that causes electrical devices to operate. C) The property of a material that enables it to attract pieces of iron. D) The relationship between current, voltage, and resistance. Rationale: The correct answer is B. The text describes "current" as "the movement of invisible particles that causes electrical devices to operate," and clarifies that "it flows through wires in the same way water flows through pipes" and "consists of electrons". Question 15: Which of the following describes "Ohm's Law"? A) The force that causes current to flow. B) The movement of invisible particles. C) The property of a material that enables it to attract pieces of iron. D) The precise relationship between current, voltage, and resistance. Rationale: The correct answer is D. The text defines "Ohm's Law" as "the precise relationship between current, voltage, resistance" and provides the formula "I= E/R" and its components. Question 16: What does Newton's First Law state? A) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Which of the following defines "speed"? A) The force that causes current to flow. B) The movement of invisible particles. C) The distance covered per unit of time. D) The relationship between current, voltage, and resistance. Rationale: The correct answer is C. The text defines "speed" as "the distance covered per unit of time". Question 20: What is the definition of velocity? a) The rate at which speed changes b) The quantity of matter in an object c) The speed of an object in a particular direction d) The gravitational force on an object Correct Answer: c) The speed of an object in a particular direction Rationale: Velocity is a vector quantity that describes both the speed and the direction of an object's motion. Question 21: Acceleration is: a) The distance an object travels per unit time b) The force acting on an object c) The rate at which velocity changes d) The resistance to motion Correct Answer: c) The rate at which velocity changes
Rationale: Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity over a period of time. This change can be in speed, direction, or both. Question 22: When does uniform acceleration occur? a) When an object moves at a constant speed b) When the direction of motion is constant c) When the velocity of a body increases by equal amounts in equal intervals of time d) When the net force on an object is zero Correct Answer: c) When the velocity of a body increases by equal amounts in equal intervals of time Rationale: Uniform acceleration implies a constant rate of change of velocity. Question 23: Mass refers to: a) The force of gravity on an object b) The space an object occupies c) The quantity of matter that the object contains d) The tendency of an object to resist changes in motion Correct Answer: c) The quantity of matter that the object contains Rationale: Mass is an intrinsic property of an object that measures the amount of matter it is made up of. Question 24: Weight is: a) Measured in kilograms b) A scalar quantity c) The quantity of matter in an object
b) Objects at rest to remain at rest and objects in motion to remain in motion until acted upon by an outside force c) Objects to always accelerate when a force is applied d) Objects to lose mass when they are in motion Correct Answer: b) Objects at rest to remain at rest and objects in motion to remain in motion until acted upon by an outside force Rationale: Inertia is Newton's First Law of Motion, describing an object's resistance to changes in its state of motion. Question 28: Energy is best defined as: a) The force that causes motion b) The rate at which work is done c) The capacity for producing an effect d) The measure of an object's mass in motion Correct Answer: c) Energy is the capacity for producing an effect Rationale: Energy is the ability to do work or cause a change. Question 29: Mechanical energy can be: a) Only kinetic energy b) Only potential energy c) Kinetic or potential energy associated with the motion or position of an object d) Energy stored in chemical bonds Correct Answer: c) Kinetic or potential energy associated with the motion or position of an object Rationale: Mechanical energy is the sum of potential and kinetic energy in a mechanical system.
Question 30: Chemical energy is a form of: a) Thermal energy b) Kinetic energy c) Potential energy stored in chemical bonds d) Mechanical energy in transition Correct Answer: c) Potential energy stored in chemical bonds Rationale: Chemical energy is stored in the bonds between atoms and molecules. Question 31: Thermal energy is associated with: a) The position of an object b) The motion of an object as a whole c) Molecules d) Chemical reactions Correct Answer: c) Molecules Rationale: Thermal energy is the internal energy of a system due to the kinetic energy of its atoms and/or molecules. Question 32: Potential energy is: a) Energy of motion b) Stored energy that results from the position or shape of an object c) Energy in transition d) Related to the velocity of an object Correct Answer: b) Stored energy that results from the position or shape of an object
c) The mechanical energy in transition when an object is moved through a distance against a resisting force d) The power output of a machine Correct Answer: c) The mechanical energy in transition when an object is moved through a distance against a resisting force Rationale: Work is done when a force acts on an object and causes it to move a certain distance. Question 36: The formula for work is: a) W = m x a b) W = E / t c) W = F x D d) W = 1/2 m v^ Correct Answer: c) W = F x D Rationale: W = work, F = force, and D = distance. Question 37: One horsepower (hp) is equal to: a) 746 Watts b) 33,000 ft-lb of force c) 550 ft-lb of energy d) 33,000 ft-lb of work per minute or 550 ft-lb of work per second Correct Answer: d) 33,000 ft-lb of work per minute or 550 ft-lb of work per second Rationale: Horsepower is a unit of power, defined as the rate at which work is done. Question 38: Heat is:
a) A measure of temperature b) The total internal energy of a system c) Thermal energy in transition d) Potential energy at a high temperature Correct Answer: c) Thermal energy in transition Rationale: Heat is the transfer of thermal energy between systems or parts of a system caused by a temperature difference. Question 39: One coulomb is equal to the charge of: a) One proton b) One electron c) 6.28 x 10^18 electrons d) 6.28 x 10^18 protons Correct Answer: c) 6.28 x 10^18 electrons Rationale: The coulomb is the SI unit of electric charge. Question 40: A shock is typically felt at a current of: a) 100mA b) 10mA c) 1mA d) 0.1mA Correct Answer: c) 1mA Rationale: 1mA (0.001A) is the threshold at which a shock can be felt by a person.
