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2025 Engineering Fundamentals (FE) Exam Overview: Structure, Disciplines, Exams of Engineering

2025 Engineering Fundamentals (FE) Exam Overview: Structure, Disciplines, and How to Prepare Effectively

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2024/2025

Available from 07/04/2025

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2025 Engineering Fundamentals (FE) Exam
Overview: Structure, Disciplines, and How to
Prepare Effectively
Question 1:
Alloys are best described as:
A) Pure metals with enhanced properties.
B) Non-metallic materials used in engineering.
C) A mixture of two or more metals (or a metal and a non-metal) to create a material with
different properties.
D) Ceramic materials with metallic inclusions.
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Alloys are specifically designed mixtures, typically
involving two or more metallic elements, to achieve desired properties that the individual
constituent metals may not possess.
Question 2:
Wood veneers are primarily used for what purpose?
A) To increase the structural strength of wood products.
B) To provide a decorative surface of a more expensive wood over a less expensive base
material.
C) To protect wood from moisture and insect damage.
D) To make wood products lighter in weight.
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Wood veneers are thin layers of high-quality wood that are
bonded to the surface of less expensive woods or composite materials to provide an aesthetic
appeal similar to solid expensive wood.
Question 3:
What is the most important safety precaution to take before making any adjustments to power
tools?
A) Ensure the power tool is running at the correct speed.
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2025 Engineering Fundamentals (FE) Exam

Overview: Structure, Disciplines, and How to

Prepare Effectively

Question 1: Alloys are best described as: A) Pure metals with enhanced properties. B) Non-metallic materials used in engineering. C) A mixture of two or more metals (or a metal and a non-metal) to create a material with different properties. D) Ceramic materials with metallic inclusions. Rationale: The correct answer is C. Alloys are specifically designed mixtures, typically involving two or more metallic elements, to achieve desired properties that the individual constituent metals may not possess. Question 2: Wood veneers are primarily used for what purpose? A) To increase the structural strength of wood products. B) To provide a decorative surface of a more expensive wood over a less expensive base material. C) To protect wood from moisture and insect damage. D) To make wood products lighter in weight. Rationale: The correct answer is B. Wood veneers are thin layers of high-quality wood that are bonded to the surface of less expensive woods or composite materials to provide an aesthetic appeal similar to solid expensive wood. Question 3: What is the most important safety precaution to take before making any adjustments to power tools? A) Ensure the power tool is running at the correct speed.

B) First put on safety glasses or other appropriate eye protection. C) Disconnect the power tool from its power source. D) Inform others nearby that you are making adjustments. Rationale: The correct answer is B. Protecting your eyes from potential flying debris or accidental contact with moving parts is the most crucial first step when working with or adjusting power tools. Question 4: In safety color coding, what does the color RED typically represent? A) Caution and potential hazards. B) Danger, emergency, and fire equipment. C) Information and safety instructions. D) Marking of walkways and traffic areas. Rationale: The correct answer is B. Red is universally recognized as the color for danger, emergency stops, fire protection equipment, and areas that should not be entered. Question 5: What are plastics primarily made from? A) Metallic ores. B) Ceramic compounds. C) Hydrocarbons derived from fossil fuels. D) Plant-based cellulose. Rationale: The correct answer is C. Plastics are synthetic polymers derived primarily from hydrocarbons found in crude oil, natural gas, and coal. Question 6: Heat energy can be fundamentally defined as: A) The total kinetic energy of all particles in a system. B) Temperature, which is the average kinetic energy of particles. C) The potential energy stored within molecular bonds. D) The rate at which thermal energy is transferred.

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Relief cuts are short, straight cuts made perpendicular to the curve being cut. These cuts allow the blade to follow the curve without excessive twisting and binding. Question 10: Why might it be necessary to adjust the speed of a drill press when working with different materials? A) To control the noise level of the drilling operation. B) Because different materials have different hardness and require optimal cutting speeds for efficiency and tool life. C) To prevent the drill bit from overheating, regardless of the material. D) To ensure the drilled hole is perfectly round. Rationale: The correct answer is B. The hardness of a material directly affects the optimal speed for drilling. Harder materials generally require slower speeds to allow the drill bit to cut effectively without overheating or damaging the bit. Softer materials can be drilled at higher speeds. Question 11: What common metal material has the lowest density? A) Steel B) Copper C) Lead D) Aluminum Rationale: The correct answer is D. Aluminum has a significantly lower density compared to steel, copper, and lead, making it a lightweight yet strong material for many applications. Question 12: Which scientist is credited with developing the laws of motion? A) Albert Einstein B) Galileo Galilei

C) Isaac Newton D) Stephen Hawking Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sir Isaac Newton formulated the three laws of motion, which are fundamental principles of classical mechanics. Question 13: What kind of drawing requires taking dimensions and creating sketches of existing items at a construction site? A) Schematic drawing B) Detail drawing C) As-built drawing D) Elevation drawing Rationale: The correct answer is C. As-built drawings, also known as record drawings, are created during or after a construction project to reflect the actual dimensions, layout, and modifications made during the construction process. This often involves field measurements and sketches of existing structures. The provided answer "walk down" seems to be an error. The correct term is "as-built drawing". Question 14: What was the primary function of the US space shuttle program? A) To establish permanent human colonies on the Moon. B) To deploy and repair satellites, conduct space research, and transport astronauts to and from space. C) To launch nuclear weapons into Earth orbit. D) To explore the outer planets of our solar system. Rationale: The correct answer is B. The primary function of the US Space Shuttle was its versatility in transporting astronauts and cargo to and from Earth orbit, deploying and retrieving satellites, and conducting scientific research in space. Question 15:

What units are used to measure the electrical resistance of a circuit? A) Amperes B) Volts C) Watts D) Ohms Rationale: The correct answer is D. Electrical resistance, which opposes the flow of current, is measured in Ohms (symbolized by Ω). Question 19: Composite materials are often anisotropic. What does this property signify? A) The material has uniform properties in all directions. B) The material is a mixture of two or more different types of materials. C) The properties of the material are directionally dependent. D) The material has a crystalline structure. Rationale: The correct answer is C. Anisotropic materials exhibit properties (such as strength, stiffness, conductivity) that vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. Composite materials, due to their layered or reinforced structure, are often anisotropic. Question 20: When you compare the actual size of the features of a project with the corresponding size of those features on a technical drawing, you determine the: A) Tolerance of the drawing. B) Scale factor for the technical drawing. C) Projection method used. D) Line weights of the drawing. Rationale: The correct answer is B. The scale factor of a technical drawing represents the ratio between the dimensions shown on the drawing and the actual dimensions of the object. Question 21:

A pendulum released from a certain height swings through its lowest point and then upward, eventually stalling at a height slightly less than its release height. This observation primarily demonstrates which of Newton's Laws of Motion? A) Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia) B) Newton's Second Law (F=ma) C) Newton's Third Law (Action-Reaction) D) The Law of Conservation of Energy (with energy loss due to friction/air resistance) Rationale: The correct answer is D. While the pendulum's motion is governed by Newton's laws, the fact that it doesn't return to the exact same height indicates a loss of mechanical energy due to non-conservative forces like air resistance and friction at the pivot point. This illustrates the principle of energy conservation where some initial potential energy is converted into kinetic energy and then dissipated as heat or sound. The provided answer "First law of motion" is incorrect in this context, as the slight decrease in height highlights energy loss, not simply inertia. Question 22: When a hammer falls from a workbench: A) Both its kinetic energy and potential energy increase. B) Its kinetic energy increases while its potential energy decreases. C) Its potential energy increases while its kinetic energy decreases. D) Both its kinetic energy and potential energy remain constant. Rationale: The correct answer is B. As the hammer falls, its velocity increases due to gravity, thus increasing its kinetic energy (energy of motion). Simultaneously, its height above the ground decreases, reducing its gravitational potential energy (energy due to position). Question 23: Thermoplastic materials exhibit what behavior when heated? A) They decompose. B) They become permanently rigid. C) They soften and become more pliable.

C) An assembly line worker with specialized training. D) A computer programmer. Rationale: The correct answer is B. Designing and implementing a robotic arm for an assembly line requires expertise from multiple engineering disciplines. Mechanical engineers would handle the physical design and movement, electrical engineers would work on the power and control systems, and computer engineers would develop the programming for its operation. Question 27: Manufacturing engineers are primarily involved in: A) Designing new consumer products. B) Developing financial models for production costs. C) Developing systems, machines, and equipment that turn raw materials into new products efficiently and effectively. D) Managing the sales and marketing of manufactured goods. Rationale: The correct answer is C. Manufacturing engineers focus on the processes and systems involved in the production of goods, from the initial raw materials to the final product. This includes designing equipment, optimizing workflows, and ensuring quality and efficiency. Question 28: What information do the numbers within the recycling symbol found on the bottom of a plastic container typically indicate? A) The weight of the plastic container. B) The date and location of manufacture. C) The resin type or the type of plastic the container is made from. D) The recommended retail price of the product. Rationale: The correct answer is C. The numbers inside the triangular recycling symbol on plastic containers are resin identification codes that indicate the type of plastic polymer used to make the container (e.g., PET, HDPE, PVC). Question 29:

Robots that can operate independently without direct human control typically utilize: A) Simple mechanical linkages. B) A direct wired connection to a human operator. C) A microcontroller and autonomous programming. D) A series of pulleys and belts. Rationale: The correct answer is C. Autonomous robots rely on embedded microcontrollers (small computers) and sophisticated programming that allows them to sense their environment, make decisions, and perform tasks without continuous human intervention. Question 30: Which company is widely recognized as the first to mass-produce the automobile? A) Mercedes-Benz B) General Motors C) Ford Motor Company D) Toyota Rationale: The correct answer is C. Henry Ford's Ford Motor Company revolutionized automobile production with the introduction of the assembly line and mass production techniques, making cars more affordable and accessible to^1 the general public. Question 31: In what year did the final crewed moon landing take place? A) 1969 B) 1971 C) 1972 D) 1975 Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Apollo 17 mission in December 1972 was the final crewed mission to land on the Moon. Question 32:

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Quenching involves rapidly cooling a metal from a high temperature (often above its critical temperature) in a medium like water, oil, or air. This process can trap the metal's microstructure in a harder, often more brittle state. Subsequent tempering is often done to reduce brittleness while retaining some of the increased hardness. Question 35: If the position of a point is defined with respect to the origin (0,0,0) of a coordinate system, what type of coordinate is being described? A) Relative B) Incremental C) Absolute D) Polar Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absolute coordinates specify a point's location directly based on the origin of the coordinate system. Question 36: Which of the following choices of footwear would provide the safest protection in a workshop, manufacturing area, or laboratory setting? A) Canvas sneakers B) Open-toed sandals C) Work boots with steel toes and slip-resistant soles D) Dress shoes Rationale: The correct answer is C. Work boots with steel toes offer protection against impact from falling objects, and slip-resistant soles help prevent slips, trips, and falls, which are common hazards in industrial environments. Question 37: In the acronym STEAM, which has become increasingly important in education, what does the "A" stand for? A) Agriculture B) Aeronautics

C) Arts D) Architecture Rationale: The correct answer is C. STEAM is an educational approach that integrates Science, Technology, Engineering, the Arts, and Mathematics. The "A" emphasizes the importance of creativity, design, and critical thinking skills fostered through the arts. Question 38: When operating a sander, if the sanding disk comes loose, the operator should immediately: A) Apply more pressure to the sander to hold the disk in place. B) Continue sanding while being extra careful. Stop the sander, turn it off, and then either tighten or replace the sanding disk. D) Reduce the speed of the sand Question 39: In the acronym STEAM, what does the "A" stand for? A. Algebra B. Arts C. Aviation D. Architecture Rationale: The acronym STEAM expands to Science, Technology, Engineering, Arts, and Mathematics. Question 40: Which of the following metals has the lowest molecular density? A. Platinum B. Aluminum C. Steel D. Titanium Rationale: Aluminum is known for its relatively low density compared to other common metals. Question 41: The hardness of steel can be increased by all EXCEPT: A. Quenching

Question 45: In manufacturing, what does the acronym QC stand for? A. Quality Certification B. Quantity Control C. Quality Control D. Quick Check Rationale: QC is a widely used abbreviation for Quality Control in manufacturing. Question 46: Which company was the first to mass produce the automobile? A. Ford B. General Motors C. Oldsmobile D. Daimler Rationale: Oldsmobile was the first company to mass-produce automobiles in the early 1900s, predating Ford's assembly line for the Model T. Question 47: The first satellite to orbit the Earth in 1957 was called? A. Explorer 1 B. Sputnik C. Vanguard 1 D. Luna 1 Rationale: Sputnik 1 was launched by the Soviet Union on October 4, 1957. Question 48: In what year was the first moon landing made? A. 1965 B. 1969 C. 1972 D. 1975

Rationale: The Apollo 11 mission, which saw the first humans land on the Moon, occurred in July 1969. Question 49: It took Apollo 11 how long to fly to the moon? A. 1 day B. 2 days C. 3 days D. 4 days Rationale: The journey from Earth to the Moon for Apollo 11 took approximately three days. Question 50: Who was the first astronaut to walk on the Moon? A. Buzz Aldrin B. Michael Collins C. Neil Armstrong D. John Glenn Rationale: Neil Armstrong was the first person to step onto the lunar surface during the Apollo 11 mission. Question 51: What units are used to measure electrical resistance of a circuit? A. Volts (V) B. Amperes (A) C. Ohms (Ω) D. Watts (W) Rationale: Ohms (Ω) are the standard unit for measuring electrical resistance. Question 52: An automobile battery produces which type of current? A. Alternating Current B. Direct Current

Question 56: A robot's microcontroller primarily serves which of the following functions? A. It powers the robot's sensors. B. It runs the robot's downloaded program. C. It controls the robot's physical structure. D. It transmits data wirelessly to a control station. Rationale: The microcontroller is the "brain" of the robot, executing the programmed instructions. Question 57: If a 12 tooth gear drives a 36 tooth gear as an output gear, what is the gear ratio? A. 3: B. 1: 1 C. 1: D. 2: Rationale: Gear ratio is calculated as the number of teeth on the driven gear divided by the number of teeth on the driving gear. So, 36/12 = 3. This is expressed as 1:3 (input:output). Question 58: One application of a thermal system is in ______. A. Sound amplification B. Food Preservation C. Light generation D. Electrical conductivity Rationale: Thermal systems often involve heat transfer, which is crucial for processes like refrigeration and cooking, both used in food preservation. Question 59: On the Fahrenheit scale, water boils at ______ degrees? A. 100º B. 212º C. 0º

D. 32º

Rationale: Water boils at 212 degrees Fahrenheit at standard atmospheric pressure. Question 60: What is the function of OSHA? A. To promote international trade agreements. B. To regulate environmental pollution. C. To ensure a safe workplace for all workers. D. To provide financial assistance to businesses. Rationale: OSHA stands for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, whose primary role is to set and enforce standards to ensure safe and healthful working conditions. Question 61: Green represents: A. Danger/emergency B. First Aid Stations C. Safety guards D. Fire equipment Rationale: In safety color codes, green typically indicates safety information, first aid, or medical equipment. Question 62: Red represents: A. First Aid Stations B. Safety guards C. Danger/emergency and fire equipment D. Pinch points Rationale: Red is universally recognized as a color for danger, emergency, and fire-related equipment. Question 63: Orange represents: A. Danger/emergency