Docsity
Log inSign up
Docsity
Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips
Sell on Docsity
Sell on Docsity
Log inSign up

Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Find documents

Prepare for your exams with the study notes shared by other students like you on Docsity

Search Store documents

The best documents sold by students who completed their studies

Search through all study resources
Docsity AINEW

Summarize your documents, ask them questions, convert them into quizzes and concept maps

Explore questions

Clear up your doubts by reading the answers to questions asked by your fellow students

Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Share documents
download point icon20 Points

For each uploaded document

Answer questions
download point icon5 Points

For each given answer (max 1 per day)

All the ways to get free points
Get points immediately

Choose a premium plan with all the points you need

Study Opportunities

Choose your next study program

Get in touch with the best universities in the world. Search through thousands of universities and official partners

Community

Ask the community

Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts

University Rankings

Discover the best universities in your country according to Docsity users

Free resources

Our save-the-student-ebooks!

Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors

From our blog

Exams and Study
Go to the blog

2025 ATPL SARON EXAM|LATEST WITH 550+Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+|100% VERIFIED, Exams of Aviation

George T Baker Aviation SchoolAviation

2025 ATPL SARON EXAM|LATEST WITH 550+Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+|100% VERIFIED

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 04/14/2025

purity-kauri
purity-kauri 🇺🇸

1.1K documents

1 / 67

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
Operational Procedures - P a g e | 1
2025 ATPL SARON EXAM|LATEST WITH
550+Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+|100% VERIFIED
1. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently
long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry
runway) within:
70% of the landing distance available
2. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
While at their station
3. Who is responsible for providing on Operation Manual in accordance with EU/JAR-
OPS Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?
The aircraft operator
4. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be
safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
(Annex 6, Part I)
The captain
5. For twin-engined aircraft, the takeoff alternate shall be located at a distance that:
(Annex 6, Part I)
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only
one engine operative
6. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight
rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome
of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6,
Part I)
At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions
required for aerodrome use
7. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or
disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)
Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on
board
8. The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List
which shall be approved by the Authority of: (Annex 6, Part I)
The country of the operator
9. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part
I)
As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35
pf36
pf37
pf38
pf39
pf3a
pf3b
pf3c
pf3d
pf3e
pf3f
pf40
pf41
pf42
pf43

Partial preview of the text

Download 2025 ATPL SARON EXAM|LATEST WITH 550+Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+|100% VERIFIED and more Exams Aviation in PDF only on Docsity!

2025 ATPL SARON EXAM|LATEST WITH

55 0+Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+|100% VERIFIED

1. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently

long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry

runway) within:

70% of the landing distance available

2. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

While at their station

3. Who is responsible for providing on Operation Manual in accordance with EU/JAR-

OPS Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?

The aircraft operator

4. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be

safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?

(Annex 6, Part I)

The captain

5. For twin-engined aircraft, the takeoff alternate shall be located at a distance that:

(Annex 6, Part I)

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only

one engine operative

6. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight

rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome

of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6,

Part I)

At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions

required for aerodrome use

7. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or

disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on

board

8. The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List

which shall be approved by the Authority of: (Annex 6, Part I)

The country of the operator

9. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part

I)

As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules

10. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

The operator

11. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

The manufacturer

12. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out

with a runway visual range of at least:

550 m

13. The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation/position lights, continuously

lit in flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is:

14. The term decision height (DH) is used for:

A precision approach

15. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by

an operator must not be less than:

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last

90 days

16. The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable

on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least:

30 minutes

17. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the

shore by more than:

50 NM

18. On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance

away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that

corresponding to:

400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed

19. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a

coverage angle of:

20. According to EU-OPS 1, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass

over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during

at least the last:

25 hours of operation

21. For aircraft certified before 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the

24. On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is

provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers

to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight

period after the first 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:

10 000 ft

25. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the

following into account: 1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of

the runways 3. composition of the

flight crew

4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas

5. facilities for determining and communicating the

weather conditions The combination regrouping all the

correct statements is:

26. For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board

any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:

25 000 ft

27. A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified

take-off gross weight is greater than:

5 700 kg

28. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming

from the front left, will first see the:

Green steady light

29. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming

from the front right, will first see the:

Red steady light

30. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight

and located at the tip of the left wing is:

31. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the

scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance

multiplied by a factor of:

32. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on

at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a

factor of:

33. The EU OPS (aeroplane) and JAR-OPS (helicopter) are based on:

ICAO Appendix 6

  1. The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained. If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is: Three years
  2. Which of the following statements is true? OCH is referenced to threshold elevation
  3. At takeoff the maximum mass of the aeroplane shall be: Not more than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement procedure
  4. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is: The ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear
  5. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on an approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the: Green light
  6. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on an approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the: Red steady light
  7. According to Annex 6, what is the definition of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)? A statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace
  8. According to Annex 6, "RNP type" is defined as a containment value expressed as a distance in ... (i)... from the intended position within which flights would be for at least ... (ii)... of the total flying time. (i) Nautical miles (ii) 95%
  9. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side, with a coverage angle of: 110°
  10. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the left side is: 110°
  11. According to EASA/JAR-OPS, when a flight data recorder is required, it must start automatically to record the data: Prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power
  1. According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of: 1500 m
  2. During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than: 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude
  3. The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is : 2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats
  4. An operator shall ensure that information relevant to the flight is preserved on the ground for the duration of each flight or series of flights. This includes:
  1. appropriate meteorological information
  2. a copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the mass and balance documentation
  3. copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft technical log
  4. route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by the operator
  5. special loads notification
  6. copies of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2,3,4,
  1. In accordance with EU OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are : MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
  2. EU OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that: Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
  3. In accordance with EU OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less than : 200 m
  4. In accordance with EU OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with: NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
  5. In accordance with EU OPS, an operator shall ensure that a copy for the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least: 3 months
  1. In accordance with EU OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot- in- command unless: He has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
  2. EU OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless: He has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days
  3. In accordance with EU OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single- pilotoperation under IFR or at night shall be: 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
  4. In accordance with EU OPS 1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but no less than: 75 m
  5. The first part of the EU OPS/JAR OPS apply to: The operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft
  6. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the : Operation flight plan
  7. In accordance with EU/JAR-OPS, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of: 3 months
  8. Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: 60 days
  9. During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain: Must not authorize any person to use such a device on board
  10. The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the airplane. He Must do so, within a reasonable period of time
  11. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is: Oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin pressurisation failure
  1. The aerodrome operating minima for a VOR/DME approach are: MDH = 360 ft Required RVR = 1500 metres Reported RVR = 1800 metres According to EU-OPS, the pilot may continue the final approach: Regardless of the ceiling reported
  2. In accordance with OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among otherconsiderations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is: D
  3. Which of the following forms or information are not required to be carried on all flight? 1) The Operational Flight Plan (OFP)
  1. Mass and balance documentation
  2. NOTAMS
  3. The technical log 5) Maps and charts
  4. Passenger and cargo manifests 6
  1. After an incident, the FDR recordings must be kept for: 60 days
  2. When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander: Shall comply within a reasonable period of time
  3. A pilot in command:
  1. Must comply with ATC instructions immediately.2) Is only responsible when airborne.
  2. May deviate in an emergency.
  3. May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with an ATC instruction. 5) May request a new clearance if unsatisfied. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: 3, 5
  1. What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC? Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority
  2. The number of emergency exits in transport aircraft: Must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aircraft within 90 seconds through 50 % of the available emergency exits
  1. According to EU-OPS/JAR-OPS, on a IFR flight a commander shall not commence takeoff unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above: The planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome
  2. In an aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided:
  1. during taxiing
  2. during takeoff
  3. during landing
  4. whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety
  5. during other phases of flight Select the correct regrouping of the statements: 2, 3, 4 EU OPS 1.
  1. How far from an enroute alternate airfield can a 2 - engined turbojet aeroplane with more than 20 seats and a MTOM of 38.000 kg be flown? 60 minutes at the one engine out speed
  2. On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engined aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve, including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during: 2 hours with normal cruise consumption EU OPS 1.
  3. A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passengers are on board and the expected flight level on route Paris-Algers is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for a least: 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at a cabin altitude of more than 8000 feet EU OPS 1.
  4. Aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61 and 200 passengers will require the following number of megaphones on the passenger deck: 2 EU OPS 1.
  5. JAR/EU-OPS 1 applies to: The operation by a JAA state member of any civil commercial transport aeroplane
  6. An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information is preserved on the ground. This includes: Mass and balance documentation, if required
  7. In accordance with EU OPS, an operator shall ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of: 24 months
  1. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, planning minima for a destination aerodrome with an applicable precision approach procedure is: RVR/visibility specified in accordance with EU/JAR-OPS Aerodrome Operating Minima
  2. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available? RVR according to CAT I
  3. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available? Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH)
  4. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a non- precision approach available? Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200 ft/1000 m
  5. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome, if it is equipped with a non-precision approach only? RVR/visibility specified in accordance with EU/JAR-OPS, and the ceiling at or above MDH
  6. According to EU-OPS, in establishing the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular operation, an operator must take full account of:
  1. equipment available on the aircraft
  2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
  3. composition of the flight crew
  4. obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas
  5. means to determine and report the meteorological conditions The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  1. In accordance with EU-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach?
  1. the required RVR 2) the ceiling
  2. the minimum descent height (MDH)4) the decision height (DH) The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3
  1. To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by EU-OPS 1 is: 1500 metres
  2. In accordance with EU OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than: 250 ft
  1. In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than: 300 ft
  2. In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lowerthan: 250 ft
  3. In accordance with EU-OPS, where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, if the reported RVR/Visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond: 1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport
  4. Regarding all weather operations, if Vat is from 121 kt to 140 kt, the aeroplane is in Category: C
  5. According to EU-OPS 1, a Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height (DH) not lower than ...(i)... and with a runway visual range (RVR) not less than ...(ii)...
  6. According to EU-OPS 1, who is responsible for establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima for each aerodrome planned to be used for commercial purposes? The Operator
  7. In normal flight, what is the position of the emergency lighting switch? ARMED
  8. First aid oxygen carried on a pressurised aircraft is used for: Passengers or crew when required
  9. A flight with 42 passengers is required to carry sufficient first aid oxygen for ... calculated for the entire flight time which, following de-pressurisation, the aircraft cabin altitude would be greater than... One passenger; 8000 ft
  10. If an aircraft has a maximum seating configuration of less than 200 but more than 9, a crash axe or crowbar must be carried: One on the flight deck only
  11. An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: 30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness
  12. An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, the number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required is at least: 110% of the seating capacity (ii) 550 m (i) 200 ft
  1. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which records:
  1. voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio
  2. the aural environment of the flight deck
  3. the cabin attendants communications in the cabin using the aeroplane's interphone system
  4. voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system
  5. voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker
  6. voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system, if installed The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 143. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically: Prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power
  1. In accordance with EU-OPS 1 and with the exception of amphibians and seaplanes, the carriage of a life jacket for each person on board is compulsory when the aeroplane is:
  1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure 2) is flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than 50 NM
  2. is using departure and arrival paths over water and when a ditching probability exists 4) is flying over a stretch of water at more than 40 NM off shore The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 3
  1. According to EU-OPS, the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is: 2
  2. According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 200, is: 2
  3. According to EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with: 1 hand fire extinguisher in the cockpit and 1 hand fire extinguisher in the passenger compartment
  4. According to EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200 must be equipped with: 3 hand fire extinguisher in the passenger compartment
  5. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: 1 hand fire extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment
  1. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: 2 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
  2. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: 4 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
  3. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: 5 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
  4. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least: 6 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
  5. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: 8 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
  6. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least: 3 HALON 1211 fire extinguishers or equivalent
  7. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum take off mass exceeds 5700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a: Crash axe or a crowbar on the flight deck
  8. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, during and following an emergency descent, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with a minimum supplemental oxygen quantity: 1) in order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft
  1. in order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes
  2. in no case less than 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly up to 25000 ft
  3. in no case less than 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly over 25000 ft The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4
  1. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100% of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is: The entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes
  1. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, in order to be operated IFR or at night in areas with potentially hazardous weather conditions, an aeroplane must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the aeroplane is:
  1. pressurised
  2. non-pressurised with a maximum take-off mass of more than 5700 kg
  3. non-pressurised with a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 9 seats
  4. non-pressurised regardless of weight or seating configuration The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3
  1. In accordance with EU-OPS, for a non-pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is: Required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
  2. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a non-pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
  3. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than: 2 hours
  4. Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of 80 NM from the shore. According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is: 60
  5. Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power unit becoming inoperative. The track will overflywater for a distance of 380 NM from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing. According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of life rafts shall be: 3 life rafts of 30 - seat capacity
  6. In accordance with EU-OPS, an aircraft must be equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to each required flight crew member: When operating under IFR
  7. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, what minimum navigation equipment is required for operations under IFR, or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks? One VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME
  8. Which JAR/EASA prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations? JAR 145, EASA Part 145
  1. In accordance with EU-OPS, "pre-flight inspection" is the inspection carried out: Before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight. It does not include defect rectification
  2. Under what circumstances may an operator introduce alternative procedures to those prescribed in EU- OPS Subpart M (Maintenance)? When needed and when an equivalent safety case has first been approved by the Authority and supported by JAA Member Authorities 179. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for: All turbopropeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 and for all turbojet aeroplanes
  3. In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator shall ensure that each cabin crew member is at least: 18 years of age
  4. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than ...(i)..., and when carrying ...(ii)... or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is included. (i) 19 (ii) one
  5. According to EU-OPS 1, an operator must select a take-off alternate: If it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for meteorological or performance reasons
  6. According to EU-OPS 1, the selection of a destination alternate is not required when: The destination is isolated and no adequate destination alternate exists
  7. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class B or C without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in ...(i)... minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise speed, or ...(ii)... nautical miles, whichever is less.
  8. According to EU-OPS 1, without ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class A, with a maximum take-off mass of 45360 kg or more, is the distance flown in ... minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise speed. 60
  9. According to OPS regulation, a quality system: Shall be established by all operators (i) 120 (ii) 300