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2025 APEA PREDICTOR EXAM | QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED
ANSWERS | LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
What are s/s of an intraductal breast papilloma? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------clear to bloody unilateral nipple discharge (bilateral is usually benign), and also a wart like lump palpated in the nipple area If a patient has GABHS but has an allergy to penicillins, what is the second line option? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------first generation cephalosporins, unless the allergy is severe, then you would consider macrolides like a - mycin PDE5 inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil) are contraindicated in which patient populations? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------in those who are on any type of nitrate or triptan because it could result in hypotension What class of drug is sildenafil (viagra)? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------- ---------a PDE5 inhibitor which can cause hypotension so you should do a full cardiac assessment before starting a patient on this and maybe do an EKG What are the symptoms of peripheral artery disease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------think P meaning pain, A meaning absent or weak pulses, eschar or shiny legs, intermittent claudication What is first line treatment for PAD? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------- ----walking and physical activity to improve circulation. second line is an aspirin or anti-platelet
What should we tell our patients with PAD NOT to do? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------do not elevate the feet; keep them down How do we diagnose PAD? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------an ABI < 7; doppler can also be used to diagnose as well but is the second choice What are s/s of peripheral vascular disease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-- ---------------think V meaning volume overload aka edema, may ache or be uncomfortable but is not painful, bounding pulses, ruddy discoloration If a patient is on Coumadin but then they may need to go on an antibiotic for an infection and Bactrim is the drug of choice, what should you do? ------ ---CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Bactrim increases INR so we would want to decrease the coumadin dose while the patient is on this If a patient is on Coumadin but then they may need to go on Rifampin, what should you do? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Rifampin decreases INR so we'd want to increase the coumadin dose If a patient on coumadin's INR is 3.1-4 ,what should you do? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------decrease the weekly dose by 5-10%
If a patient's Coomb's test is negative, what do we do? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------give rhogam at 28 weeks and 72 hours after birth What is the only form of non-hormonal contraception other than barrier methods such as condoms? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------IUD The vaginal ring for contraception must be taken out how often? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------every 3 weeks If a patient is on birth control and is currently having breakthrough bleeding, then what do we do? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------increase the progesterone How do we treat temporal arteritis? ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------------- --steroids If a patient is on birth control and they miss one pill, what should they do? -- -------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------double up If a patient is on birth control and they miss two pills, what should they do? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------double up for 2 days If any woman comes in with painless vaginal bleeding between periods (esp if she is postmenopausal), what should you do? ---------CORRECT
ANSWER-----------------do a pregnancy test and then refer for endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer In terms of the breasts, _____________ is used for screening and _____________ is used for diagnosis. ---------CORRECT ANSWER---------- -------mammogram; ultrasound When do we screen for group B strep in pregnancy? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------weeks 35- 37 When do we perform alpha fetoprotein screening in pregnancy? --------- CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 15 - 20 weeks Alpha fetoprotein screening in pregnancy can help determine the presence of what in pregnancy? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------spina bifida and anencephaly What is placenta previa? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------when the placenta blocks the cervical opening of the uterus What is placenta abruptio? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------when the placenta either fully or partially detaches from the uterine wall When does placental abruption most commonly occur? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------in the third trimester
How is fibromyalgia diagnosed? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- when at least 8 out of 11 points bilaterally are tender to touch and the symptoms have lasted longer than 3 months What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----- ------------when the femoral head of the hip is out of place What is the trendelenburg sign and when is it positive? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------when the patient is standing straight and the pelvis on the unaffected side drops; this is a sign of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis What is the biggest side effect of colchicine? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-- ---------------diarrhea How would you describe the appearance of molluscum contagiosum? ------- --CORRECT ANSWER-----------------papules that are umbilicated and contain a caseous plug How do we treat a broken clavicle in an infant? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------no treatment; it should heal on it's own At what week of pregnancy is the uterus palpable just above the pubic symphysis? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------week 12
At what week of pregnancy is the fundus palpable halfway between the pubic symphysis and umbilicus? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- week 16 At what week of pregnancy is the fundus of the uterus at the umbilicus? ---- -----CORRECT ANSWER-----------------week 20 At what week of pregnancy is the fundus of the uterus halfway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- week 28 At what week of pregnancy is the fundus just below the xiphoid process? --- ------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------week 34 Increased sweat production is a sign of what endocrine disorder? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------hyperthyroidism What is Paget's disease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------there is localized increased bone turnover and blood flow resulting in the breakdown of bone and replacing it with weakened and highly vascular bone putting the indiv at increased risk of fractures How do we treat Paget's diseease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------------- ---bisphosphonates
An anorexic patient will have a BMI of what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-- ---------------less than 18 What is primary amenorrhea? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- when the patient has never gotten their period before (there is an absence of menarche) but they have all of their secondary sex characteristics Secondary amenorrhea is a lack of menses after _________ of not having a period; but you have had one before ---------CORRECT ANSWER---------- -------3 months What do we need to do first when a patient comes in with secondary amenorrhea? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------rule out pregnancy Anorexia can put you at risk for what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------- ------osteoporosis, amenorrhea, cardiac damage Amenorrhea is considered a risk factor for what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------osteoporosis What is the best indication of an anorexic patient doing better? They tell you they are eating more, they have weight gain, or they get their period back? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------they get their period back
If a pregnant woman has syphilis, what should we do? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------treat it with penicillin while she is pregnant because there is risk for spontaneous abortion What is the causative organism of mastitis? ---------CORRECT ANSWER--- --------------staph What is the first line treatment for mastitis? ---------CORRECT ANSWER---- -------------keflex (a cephalosporin). If that doesn't work, then try another antibiotic. If that STILL doesn't work, then refer for an ultrasound What is one of the biggest risk factors for cervical cancer? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------numerous sexual partners Preeclampsia most commonly shows up at what time in pregnancy? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------around week 20 What is the main characteristic of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis? ------- --CORRECT ANSWER-----------------walking with a limp SCFE is most common in which patient population? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------adolescents What is legg-calve-perthe disease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------------- ---avascular necrosis of the femoral head due to a lack of blood supply
What is myasthenia gravis? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness of the voluntary muscles Genu valgum is caused by a problem with what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------the medial collateral ligament; think valgum as in gum makes your knees stick together Genu varum is caused by a problem with what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------the lateral collateral ligament What are shin splints? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a medial tibial syndrome caused by overuse of the muscles How do we treat shin splints? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------rest and avoidance of exercise until the pain resolves What is the tell-tale difference between a herniated disc and sciatica? ------- --CORRECT ANSWER-----------------sciatica feels better when you stand, a herniated disc feels better when you sit down When will spinal or lumbar stenosis feel better? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------when the patient sits down
What is Korsakoff syndrome? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a deficiency in thiamine and folate caused by alcoholism What changes to the vagina occur with aging? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------dryness, loss of rugae, less pubic hair What is a navicular fracture? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------also known as a scaphoid fracture; this impacts the snuff box and causes tenderness there. This will have to be casted to stabilize the fracture Heberden and bouchard's nodes are indicative of what disease process? What about swan neck deformities? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------------- ---osteoarthritis; rheumatoid arthritis What is Morton's neuroma? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a mass between the 3rd and 4th toes that feels like a pebble; most common in women who wear high heels or tight shoes How is Morton's neuroma diagnosed? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------- ------via a positive Muddler's or squeeze test causing pain What is the hook test? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------used to assess for a bicep tendon issue
What is the recommended treatment for Bell's palsy? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------steroids and anti-virals How is the pain of trigeminal neuralgia vs temporal arteritis different? --------
- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------in trigeminal neuralgia, the pain is like a shock hitting the side of your face whereas temporal arteritis is more like a headache What are the preventative treatment options for migraines? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------beta blockers, amitriptyline, venlafaxine, topamax, valproate What is Addison's disease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- adrenal insufficiency; the patient will be low in cortisol and sodium but their potassium will be high What are s/s of Addison's disease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------------- ---bronze or discolored skin, salt cravings a rare complication of pregnancy characterized by the abnormal growth of trophoblasts, the cells that normally develop into the placenta --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------molar pregnancy What bacteria is the leading cause of urethritis? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------neisseria gonorrhea
What is the most common cause of hypercortisolism? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------excessive ACTH production How do we treat developmental hip dysplasia in a child under 6 months? --- ------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Pavlik harness; if older than 6 months may need surgery It is recommended that all children younger than __________ with sickle cell anemia take daily prophylactic antibiotics. What antibiotic is this? --------
- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------5 years old; penicillin When can cervical cancer screening stop if no abnormal screening history is present? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------age 65 When should breast cancer screening begin and end with a biannual mammogram? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------age 50 - 74 When should colorectal cancer screening stop? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------age 85 Who qualifies for a low dose CT scan for lung cancer screening purposes? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------age 50-80 years anyone who currently smokes or has stopped smoking within the last 5 years What does an ASC-US (atypical squamos cells of undetermined significance) pap smear result necessitate? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----
The Lachman's test assesses what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------- ----the ACL The McMurray's test assesses for what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------- ---------a torn meniscus The anterior drawer test assesses what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------- ----------the acl The posterior drawer test assesses what? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------ -----------the posterior cruciate ligament (pcl) a normal rise in blood sugar as a person's body prepares to wake up due to a release of cortisol and growth hormone ---------CORRECT ANSWER------- ----------dawn phenomenon How can you tell between the dawn and somogyi effect? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------If the blood sugar level is low at 2 a.m. to 3 a.m., suspect the Somogyi effect. If the blood sugar level is normal or high at 2 a.m. to 3 a.m., it's likely the dawn phenomenon.
