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2025-2026 NU372 (Adult Health Nursing II)FINAL EXAM AND FINAL EXAM PREP|ALL 215Qs&As|GRADED A+
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Which is the primary cause of otitis media in young children? An obstructed eustachian tube Rationale: A blocked eustachian tube impairs drainage and creates negative pressure; when the tube opens, bacteria are pulled into the middle ear. A client is prescribed rifampin after being exposed to active tuberculosis. Which finding would the nurse immediately report to the health care provider? Select all that apply. Small, red, pinpoint areas on the arms A client is being admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type of room would the nurse assign this client? Negative-airflow room A client arrives at a health clinic stating, "I am here to have my tuberculin skin test read." The nurse notes that there is a 7-mm indurated area at the injection site. Which statement made by the nurse correctly describes this result? "The result indicates that you are infected with the tuberculosis organism."
A client with tuberculosis receives instructions regarding isoniazid (INH) therapy from the assigned nurse. Which client statement indicates a misunderstanding of the content? "I should apply sunscreen and wear sun-protective clothing while going outside." Rationale: This medication is not a photosensitive medication. All the rest of the statements are accurate. The nurse identifies 12 mm of induration at the site of a client's tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) test. Which rational would the nurse use to explain this test? The result indicates a need for further tests and a chest x-ray. Rationale: The test result is positive, not negative; thus further testing is necessary. It is the most accurate skin test for tuberculosis (TB) because of the testing material and the intradermal method used Which clinical manifestations are associated with a diagnosis of tuberculosis? Select all that apply. Hemoptysis Anorexia Night sweats
When a client has difficulty swallowing after a stroke, which action by the nurse would be most important in preventing pneumonia? Having suction available during meals When a client with pneumonia is experiencing dyspnea because of difficulty expectorating thick respiratory secretions, which action by the nurse will be most helpful? Offer fluids at frequent intervals A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and cryptococcal pneumonia frequently is incontinent of feces and urine and produces copious sputum. When giving this client a bath, which protective equipment would the nurse use? Select all that apply. Surgical mask Gown Gloves Rationale: A gown, mask, and gloves when bathing the client prevent contact with feces, sputum, or other body fluids during intimate body care A client is admitted with cellulitis of the left leg and a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C). The primary health care provider prescribes intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which action is the priority before administering the antibiotics?
Determine the client's allergies. Which clinical manifestation is associated with cellulitis? Lymphadenopathy (swelling of the lymph nodes) Which assessment findings would the nurse identify in a client with clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? Select all that apply. *Development of antinuclear antibodies *Inflammatory disease pattern *Bilateral involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints When developing the plan of care for a client with rheumatoid arthritis, which client consideration would the nurse include? Comfort A client with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking a corticosteroid medication for the past year. Prolonged use of corticosteroids puts this client at increased risk for which complication? Decreased white blood cells
The nurse is interviewing a client who was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which clinical findings to this disease would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? Select all that apply..
In clients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which potential complication is most important for the nurse to teach prevention strategies? Infection Rationale:. Instructions regarding rest, nutrition, and avoidance of unnecessary exposure to people with infections help reduce the risk for infection A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) reports dyspnea on exertion, increased heart rate, a persistent dry cough, and a persistent low-grade fever. The nurse auscultates bilateral crackles in the lower lung lobes. Which organism would the nurse suspect is responsible for this condition? Pneumocystis jiroveci Rationale: Pneumocystis jiroveci causes pneumonia, which is the most common opportunistic infection in clients infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which clinic manifestations would the nurse expect to find in a client who has acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection? Select all that apply..
A client expresses concern regarding the lack of annual flu vaccines because of a supply and demand problem. Which response by the nurse is best? "There are other things you and your family can do to prevent the flu, such as hand washing." Which causative agent is common to both hyperthermia and hypothermia? Alcohol Which activity places a client at risk for hyperthermia? Performing strenuous activity in high humidity The nurse assesses for which client symptoms that indicate hyperthermia? Select all that apply..
A client reports fever, redness, skin breakdown, and inflammation on the leg. Upon assessment, the nurse finds the area to be tender and edematous with diffused borders. The nurse would anticipate teaching the client about which condition? Cellulitis A child has a respiratory tract infection with a low-grade fever. When teaching the parents, which intervention would the nurse emphasize? Giving small amounts of clear liquids frequently to prevent dehydration Which finding is indicative of hypothermia in a newborn? Select all that apply.. Hypoglycemia A client with hypothermia is brought to the emergency department. Which treatment would the nurse anticipate? Core rewarming with warm fluids Rationale: Core rewarming with heated oxygen and administration of warmed oral or intravenous fluids is the preferred method of treatment.
The length of the urethra Which characteristic of urine changes in the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI)? Clarity Which instruction would the nurse include in a health practices teaching plan for a female client with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections? "Wear cotton underwear or lingerie." A client recovering from deep partial-thickness burns develops chills, fever, flank pain, and malaise. The primary health care provider makes a tentative diagnosis of urinary tract infection. Which diagnostic tests would the nurse expect the primary health care provider to prescribe to confirm this diagnosis? Urinalysis with a urine culture and sensitivity A primary health care provider diagnoses the client's condition as otitis media. Which assessment finding supports that diagnosis? Redness of the eardrum
The nurse would include which instruction to the parents of a child being treated with oral ampicillin for otitis media? Complete the entire course of antibiotic therapy. Which factor would the nurse consider when the parent of a 10-month-old infant expresses frustration that this is the baby's third otitis media in 3 months? The eustachian tube is short and horizontal. The parent of a preterm infant asks the nurse in the neonatal intensive care unit why the baby is in a bed with a radiant warmer. How would the nurse explain the increased risk for hypothermia in preterm infants? Lack the subcutaneous fat that usually provides insulation While performing cardiac surgery, the cardiologist intentionally induces hypothermia in the client. Which rationale explains this intervention by the cardiologist? To prevent tissue ischemia Rationale: surgeons intentionally induce hypothermia to decrease the oxygen requirement of the tissues and ultimately prevent tissue ischemia. Which action would be the nurse's priority of care for a client with hypothermia?
Rationale: Blood replacement is needed to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood; the expected hematocrit for women is 37% to 47% and for men is 42% to 52%. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect when assessing a client who is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock? Select all that apply..
Ask the client questions to determine the current understanding of high blood pressure When a client with a history of hypertension that is usually successfully treated with medications has a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg during a clinic appointment, which action would the nurse take next? Question the client about symptoms such as headache or chest pain. Which medication would be prescribed to reduce hypertension in a pregnant client? Magnesium sulfate A pregnant woman diagnosed with hypertension was administered magnesium sulfate. Which prescribed medication would the nurse administer to prevent magnesium toxicity? Calcium gluconate After a short hospitalization for an episode of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) related to hypertension, a client is discharged on a regimen that includes chlorothiazide. Which instruction will the nurse give the client regarding nutrition?
"Eat more dark green, leafy vegetables such as spinach." Rationale: The client should increase the dietary intake of potassium because of potassium loss associated with chlorothiazide. A client is admitted to the hospital, and benazepril is prescribed for hypertension. Which is an appropriate nursing action for clients taking this medication? Assess for dizziness. Furosemide has been prescribed as part of the medical regimen for a client with hypertension. Which client statement indicates a need for medication education? "This can decrease my vitamin K level." Rationale: Furosemide can produce hypokalemia, not vitamin K deficiency A client who is receiving atenolol for hypertension frequently reports feeling dizzy. Which effect of atenolol is responsible for this response? Blocking the adrenergic response