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2024/2025 MATERNAL CHILD NURSING NUR 2513
EXAM 1 300+ QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
- While the vital signs of a pregnant client in her third trimester are being assessed, the client complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Have the stand up and retake her blood pressure. b. Have client the client sit down and hold her arm in a dependent position. c. Have the client turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes. d. Have the client lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms. Blood pressure is affected by positions during pregnancy. The supine position may cause occlusion of the vena cava and descending aorta. Turning the pregnant woman to a lateral recumbent position alleviates pressure on the blood vessels and quickly corrects supine hypotension. Pressures are significantly higher when the patient is standing. This would cause an increase in systolic and diastolic pressures. The arm should be supported at the same level of the heart. The supine position may cause occlusion of the vena cava and descending aorta, creating hypotension.
A pregnant client has come to the emergency department with complaints of nasal congestion and epistaxis. Which is the correct interpretation of these symptoms by the health care provider? a. Nasal stuffiness and nosebleeds are caused by a decrease in progesterone. b. These conditions are abnormal. Refer the client to an ear, nose, and throat specialist. c. Estrogen relaxes the smooth muscles in the respiratory tract, so congestion and epistaxis are within normal limits. d. Estrogen causes increased blood supply to the mucous membranes and can result in congestion and nosebleeds. As capillaries become engorged, the upper respiratory tract is affected by the subsequent edema and hyperemia, which causes these conditions, seen commonly during pregnancy. Progesterone is responsible for the heightened awareness of the need to breathe in pregnancy. Progesterone levels increase during pregnancy. The client should be reassured that these symptoms are within
normal limits. No referral is needed at this time. Relaxation of the smooth muscles in the respiratory tract is affected by progesterone.
increase in volume. Assisting with pulling metabolic wastes from the fetus for maternal excretion is one purpose of the increased vascular volume. Renal plasma flow increases during pregnancy.
Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy because of: a. inadequate intake of iron. b. the fetus establishing iron stores. c. dilution of hemoglobin concentration. d. decreased production of erythrocytes. When blood volume expansion is more pronounced and occurs earlier than the increase in red blood cells, the woman will have physiologic anemia, which is the result of dilution of hemoglobin concentration rather than inadequate hemoglobin. Inadequate intake of iron may lead to true anemia. If the woman does not take an adequate amount of iron, true anemia may occur when the fetus pulls stored iron from the maternal system. There is increased production of erythrocytes during pregnancy.
7 A client is currently pregnant; she has a 5-year-old son and a 3-year-old daughter. She had
one other pregnancy that terminated at 8 weeks. Which are her gravida and para? a. 3, 2 b. 4, 3 c. 4, 2 d. 3, 3 She has had four pregnancies, including the current one (gravida 4). She had two pregnancies that terminated after 20 weeks (para 2). The pregnancy that terminated at 8 weeks is classified as an abortion. Because she is currently pregnant, she is classified as a gravida 4. Gravida 4 is correct, but she is para 2; the pregnancy that was terminated at 8 weeks is classified as an abortion. Because she is currently pregnant, she would be classified as a gravida 4, not 3.
A client’s last menstrual period was June 10. What is her estimated date of birth (EDD)? a. April 7 b. March 17 c. March 27 d. April 17
To determine the EDD, the nurse uses the first day of the last menstrual period (June 10), subtracts 3 months (March 10), and adds 7 days (March 17). April 7 would be subtracting 2 months instead of 3 months and then subtracting 3 days instead of adding 7 days. March is the correct month, but instead of adding 7 days, 17 days were added. April 17 is subtracting 2 months instead of 3.
Why should a woman in her first trimester of pregnancy expect to visit her health care provider every 4 weeks? a. Problems can be eliminated. b. She develops trust in the health care team. c. Her questions about labor can be answered. d. The conditions of the expectant mother and fetus can be monitored. This routine allows for monitoring maternal health and fetal growth and ensures that problems will be identified early. All problems cannot be eliminated because of prenatal visits, but they can be identified. Developing a trusting relationship should be established during these visits, but that is not the primary reason. Most women do not have questions concerning labor until the last trimester of the pregnancy.
A client in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. She asks, “Why does this happen?” What is the nurse’s best response? a. “It is due to an increase in gastric motility.” b. “It may be due to changes in hormones.” c. “It is related to an increase in glucose levels.” d. “It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions.” Nausea and vomiting are believed to be caused by increased levels of hormones, decreased gastric motility, and hypoglycemia. Gastric motility decreases during pregnancy. Glucose levels decrease in the first trimester. Gastric secretions decrease, but this is not the main cause of nausea and vomiting.
A client notices that the health care provider writes “positive Chadwick’s sign” on her chart. She asks the nurse what this means. Which is the nurse’s best response?
Backaches while standing is a normal finding in the later stage of pregnancy. Shortness of breath is an expected finding at 35 weeks.
A pregnant woman is the mother of two children. Her first pregnancy ended in a stillbirth at 32 weeks of gestation, her second pregnancy with the birth of her daughter at 36 weeks, and her third pregnancy with the birth of her son at 41 weeks. Using the five-digit system to describe this woman’s current obstetric history, what should the nurse record? a. 4-1-2-0- b. 3-1-2-0- c. 4-2-1-0- d. 3-1-1-1- Gravida (the first number) is 4 because this woman is now pregnant and was pregnant three times before. Para (the next four numbers) represents the outcomes of the pregnancies and would be described as follows: • T: 1 = term birth at 41 weeks of gestation (son) • P: 2 = preterm birth at 32 weeks of gestation (stillbirth) and 36 weeks of gestation (daughter) • A: 0 = abortion; none
- L: 2 = living children, her son and her daughter She is currently pregnant so she is a gravida
- She had one term infant, two preterm infants, no abortion, and three living children.
Which laboratory result would be a cause for concern if exhibited by a client at her first prenatal visit during the second month of her pregnancy? a. Rubella titer, 1: b. Platelets, 300,000/mm c. White blood cell count, 6000/mm d. Hematocrit 38%, hemoglobin 13 g/dL A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, a viral infection that has the potential to cause teratogenic effects on fetal development. Arrangements should be made to administer the rubella vaccine after birth during the postpartum period because administration of rubella, a live vaccine, would be contraindicated during pregnancy. Women receiving the vaccine during the postpartum period should be cautioned to avoid pregnancy for 3 months. The lab
values for WBCs, platelets, and hematocrit/hemoglobin are within the expected range for pregnant women.
A client in her third trimester of pregnancy is asking about safe travel. Which statement should the nurse give about safe travel during pregnancy? a. “Only travel by car during pregnancy.” b. “Avoid use of the seat belt during the third trimester.” c. “You can travel by plane until your 38th week of gestation.” d. “If you are traveling by car stop to walk every 1 to 2 hours.” Car travel is safe during normal pregnancies. Suggest that the woman stop to walk every 1 to 2 hours so she can empty her bladder. Walking also helps decrease the risk of thrombosis that is elevated during pregnancy. Seat belts should be worn throughout the pregnancy. Instruct the woman to fasten the seat belt snugly, with the lap belt under her abdomen and across her thighs and the shoulder belt in a diagonal position across her chest and above the bulge of her uterus. Travel by plane is generally safe up to 36 weeks if there are no complications of the pregnancy, so only travelling by car is an inaccurate statement.
The client has just learned she is pregnant and overhears the gynecologist saying that she has a positive Chadwick’s sign. When the client asks the nurse what this means, how should the nurse respond? a. “Chadwick’s sign signifies an increased risk of blood clots in pregnant women because of a congestion of blood.” b. “That sign means the cervix has softened as the result of tissue changes that naturally occur with pregnancy.” c. “This means that a mucous plug has formed in the cervical canal to help protect you from uterine infection.” d. “This sign occurs normally in pregnancy, when estrogen causes increased blood flow in the area of the cervix.” Increasing levels of estrogen cause hyperemia (congestion with blood) of the cervix, resulting in the characteristic bluish purple color that extends to include the vagina and labia. This discoloration, referred to as Chadwick’s sign, is one of the earliest signs of pregnancy. Although
b. Multipara c. Nullipara d. Primigravida
You are performing assessments for an obstetric client who is 5 months pregnant with her third child. Which finding would cause you to suspect that the client was at risk? a. Client states that she doesn’t feel any Braxton Hicks contractions like she had in her prior pregnancies. b. Fundal height is below the umbilicus. c. Cervical changes, such as Goodell’s sign and Chadwick’s sign, are present. d. She has increased vaginal secretions. Based on gestational age (20 weeks), the fundal height should be at the umbilicus. This finding is abnormal and warrants further investigation about potential risk. With subsequent pregnancies, multiparas may not perceive Braxton Hicks contractions as being evident compared with their initial pregnancy. Cervical changes such as Goodell’s and Chadwick’s signs should be present and are considered a normal finding. Increased vaginal secretions are normal during pregnancy as a result of increased vascularity.
What is the best explanation that you can provide to a pregnant client who is concerned that she has “pseudoanemia” of pregnancy? a. Have her write down her concerns and tell her that you will ask the physician to respond once the lab results have been evaluated. b. Tell her that this is a benign self-limiting condition that can be easily corrected by switching to a high-iron diet. c. Inform her that because of the pregnancy, her blood volume has increased, leading to a substantial dilution effect on her serum blood levels, and that most women experience this condition.
d. Contact the physician and get a prescription for iron pills to correct this condition. Providing factual information based on physiologic mechanisms is the best option. Although having the client write down her concerns is reasonable, the nurse should not refer this conversation to the physician but rather address the client’s specific concerns. Switching to a high-iron diet will not correct this condition. This physiologic pattern occurs during pregnancy as a result of hemodilution from excess blood volume. Iron medication is not indicated for correction of this condition. There is no need to contact the physician for a prescription.
Which physiologic finding is consistent with normal pregnancy? a. Systemic vascular resistance increases as blood pressure decreases. b. Cardiac output increases during pregnancy. c. Blood pressure remains consistent independent of position changes. d. Maternal vasoconstriction occurs in response to increased metabolism. Cardiac output increases during pregnancy as a result of increased stroke volume and heart rate. Systemic vascular resistance decreases while blood pressure remains the same. Maternal blood pressure changes in response to client positioning. In response to increased metabolism, maternal vasodilation is seen during pregnancy.
A pregnant client complains that since she has been pregnant, her nose is always stuffed and she feels like she has a cold. Past medical history is negative for respiratory problems such as hay fever, sinusitis, or other allergies. What is the most likely cause for the client’s presentation? a. Increased effects of progesterone to maintain the pregnancy b. Effects of estrogen on the respiratory tract
a. Increased emptying time in the intestines b. Abdominal distention and bloating c. Decreased absorption of water d. Decreased motility in the intestines Decreased motility in the intestines leading to increased water absorption would cause constipation. Increased emptying time in the intestines leads to increased nutrient absorption. Abdominal distention and bloating are a result of increased emptying time in the intestines. Decreased absorption of water would not cause constipation.
Which physiologic findings are seen with respect to gallbladder function that might lead to the development of gallstones during pregnancy? a. Decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels compared with nonpregnant women b. Increase in albumin and total protein as a result of hemodilution c. Hypertonicity of gallbladder tissue d. Prolonged emptying time Prolonged emptying time is seen during pregnancy and may lead to the development of gallstones. In pregnancy, there is a twofold to fourfold time increase in alkaline phosphatase levels as compared with those in nonpregnant woman. During pregnancy, a decrease in albumin level and total protein are seen as a result of hemodilution. Gallbladder tissue becomes hypotonic during pregnancy.
Which of these findings would indicate a potential complication related to renal function during pregnancy? a. Increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) b. Increase in serum creatinine level c. Decrease in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) d. Mild proteinuria
With pregnancy, one would expect the serum creatinine and BUN levels to decrease. An elevation in the serum creatinine level should be investigated. With pregnancy, the GFR increases because of increased renal blood flow and is thus a normal expected finding. A decrease in the blood urea nitrogen level and mild proteinuria are expected findings in pregnancy.
A pregnant client notices that she is beginning to develop dark skin patches on her face. She denies using any different type of facial products as a cleansing solution or makeup. What would the priority nursing intervention be in response to this situation? a. Refer the client to a dermatologist for further examination. b. Ask the client if she has been eating different types of foods. c. Take a culture swab and send to the lab for culture and sensitivity (C&S). d. Let the client know that this is a common finding that occurs during pregnancy. This condition is known as chloasma or melasma (mask of pregnancy) and is a result of pigmentation changes relative to hormones. It can be exacerbated by exposure to the sun. There is no need to refer to a dermatologist. Intake of foods is not associated with exacerbation of this process. There is no need for a C&S to be taken. The client should be assured that this is a normal finding of pregnancy.
Determine the obstetric history of a client in her fifth pregnancy who had two spontaneous abortions in the first trimester, one infant at 32 weeks’ gestation, and one infant at 38 weeks’ gestation. a. G5 T1 P2 A2 L 2 b. G5 T1 P1 A1 L c. G5 T0 P2 A2 L d. G5 T1 P1 A L
acceptable as long as the woman is not continually on her feet or exposed to environmental toxins and industrial hazards.
A client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse will explain that smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of which condition? a. Congenital anomalies b. Death before or after birth c. Neonatal hypoglycemia d. Neonatal withdrawal syndrome Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk for spontaneous abortion, low birth weight, abruptio placentae, placenta previa, preterm birth, perinatal mortality, and SIDS. Smoking does not appear to cause congenital anomalies, hypoglycemia, or withdrawal syndrome.
The patient reports that the first day of her last normal menstrual period was December 8. Using Nägele’s rule, what date will the nurse identify as the estimated date of birth? a. March 1 b. March 15 c. September 1 d. September 15 Nägele’s rule is often used to establish the EDD. This method involves subtracting 3 months from the date the LNMP began and adding 7 days. The incorrect responses add months instead of subtracting months and subtract days instead of adding days.
The client with an IUD has a positive pregnancy test. When planning care, the nurse will base decisions on which anticipated action? a. A therapeutic abortion will need to be scheduled because fetal damage is inevitable. b. Hormonal analyses will be done to determine the underlying cause of the false-positive test result. c. The IUD will need to be removed to avoid complications such as miscarriage or infection.
d. The IUD will need to remain in place to avoid injuring the fetus. Pregnancy with an intrauterine device (IUD) in place is unusual but it can occur and cause complications such as spontaneous abortion and infection. A therapeutic abortion is not indicated unless infection occurs.
The health care provider reports that the primigravida’s fundus can be palpated at the umbilicus. Which priority question will the nurse include in the client’s assessment? a. “Have you noticed that it is easier for you to breathe now?” b. “Would you like to hear the baby’s heartbeat for the first time?” c. “Have you felt a fluttering sensation in your lower pelvic area yet?” d. “Have you recently developed any unusual cravings, such as for chalk or dirt?” Quickening is the first maternal sensation of fetal movement and is often described as a fluttering sensation. Quickening is detected at approximately 20 weeks in the primigravida and as early as 16 weeks in the multigravida. The fundus is at the umbilicus at 20 weeks’ gestation. Lightening is associated with descent of the fetal head into the maternal pelvis and is associated with improved lung expansion. Lightening occurs approximately 2 weeks before birth in the primipara. Fetal heart tones can be detected by Doppler as early as 9 to 12 weeks of gestation. Pica is the craving for non-nutritive substances such as chalk, dirt, clay, or sand. It can develop at any time during pregnancy. It can be associated with malnutrition and the health care provider should monitor the client’s hematocrit/hemoglobin, zinc, and iron levels.
A patient at 24 week’ gestation reports to the clinic nurse that she is tired all the time. What is the nurse’s best response? a. “Everyone has chronic anemia at this time in pregnancy.” b. “I’ll make sure your health care provider is informed of your concern.”
40 A nurse is conducting a prenatal history with a patient who is new to the clinic. The
woman reports that she had one healthy baby at term, and a miscarriage at 8 weeks. What will the nurse document as the patient’s GTPAL? a. 21011 b. 20111 c. 30111 d. 31011 Because this is a prenatal history, the client is pregnant. Gravida is the number of times the uterus has been pregnant, which in this case is three. The patient reported one Term birth, no Preterm births, one Abortion or miscarriage, and presumably one Live child.
41 The clinic nurse confirms that a patient is pregnant. She reports to the nurse that she has
regular periods, and the first day of her last period was on January 20. Using Nägele’s rule, what due date will the nurse relay to the patient? a. September 23 b. September 27 c. October 23 d. October 27 Nägele’s rule is often used to establish the EDD. This method involves subtracting 3 months from the date the LNMP began and then adding 7 days.
42 The nurse is scheduling the next appointment for a healthy primigravida currently at 28
weeks gestation. When will the nurse schedule the next prenatal visit? a. 1 week b. 2 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 4 weeks From 29 to 36 weeks, routine prenatal assessment is every 2 weeks. If the pregnancy is high risk, the patient will see the health care provider more frequently.
43 The nurse is assessing a patient during a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has
been unremarkable, and at her last visit her fundal height measurement was 23 cm. The nurse measures the patient’s fundal height at 24 cm. What is the next nursing action? a. Ask the patient when she last felt fetal movement. b. Palpate the patient’s bladder to determine if it is full. c. Review the patient’s chart for her pattern of weight gain. d. Assess the patient’s deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) bilaterally at the patella. Between 16 and 36 weeks, fundal height measurement corresponds with the weeks of gestation. The patient was last at the clinic at 23 weeks and would be rescheduled to return at 27 week, or in 4 weeks. The fundal height is 3 cm less than it should be, so the nurse is concerned about fetal well-being. Fetal movement is one of the first indicators of fetal well-being. If the patient’s bladder is full, the fundal height measurement will surpass the expected finding. Weight gain can be an indicator of well-being, nutritional status, and excess fluid volume. It is not as reliable an indicator as fetal movement for well-being. DTRs are assessed routinely to assess for hyperreflexia associated with gestational or pregnancy-induced hypertension.
44 A pregnant client reports that she works in a long-term care setting and is concerned about
the impending flu season. She asks about receiving the flu vaccine. As the nurse, you are aware that some immunizations are safe to administer during pregnancy, whereas others are not. Which vaccines could this client receive? (Select all that apply.) a. Tetanus b. Varicella c. Influenza d. Hepatitis A and B e. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) Inactivated vaccines such as those for tetanus, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and influenza are safe to administer to women who have a risk for contracting or developing the disease. Immunizations with live virus vaccines such as MMR, varicella (chickenpox), or smallpox are contraindicated during pregnancy because of the possible teratogenic effects on the fetus.
45 The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about signs of possible pregnancy
complications. Which should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
