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2024 midterm exam questions with answers all correctly verified MN568, Exams of Nursing

Harrisburg Area Community College (HACC) - LancasterNursing

2024 midterm exam questions with answers all correctly verified MN568

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 04/01/2024

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2024 midterm exam questions with answers
all correctly verified MN568
1. A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2
diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial
treatment?
a. No treatment at this time
b. Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
c. Diet, exercise, and oral medication
d. Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
2. The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the
following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
a. High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
b. Free T4 and serum calcium
c. Free T3 and T4
d. TSH and thyroxin antibodies
3. A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to
answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2
diabetes?
a. Reduces postprandial blood glucose
b. Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
c. Reduces total
cholesterol d. All of the
above
4. A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and
clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat
breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first?
a. Check his blood sugar.
b. Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.
c. Call 911.
d. Ask him about his usual eating habits.
5. A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a
magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to
taking metformin?
a. Ketoacidosis
b. Cirrhosis
c. Hypoglycemic
episodes d. All of the
above
6. A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain,
and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus
bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon
reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
a. Serum calcium
b. TSH
c. Electrolytes
d. Urine specific gravity
7. The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of
the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
a. “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
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Download 2024 midterm exam questions with answers all correctly verified MN568 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

2024 midterm exam questions with answers

all correctly verified MN

  1. A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment? a. No treatment at this time b. Diet and exercise for 6-week trial c. Diet, exercise, and oral medication d. Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
    1. The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit? a. High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T b. Free T4 and serum calcium c. Free T3 and T d. TSH and thyroxin antibodies
    2. A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes? a. Reduces postprandial blood glucose b. Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL) c. Reduces total cholesterol d. All of the above
    3. A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first? a. Check his blood sugar. b. Have him drink 4 ounces of juice. c. Call 911. d. Ask him about his usual eating habits.
    4. A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin? a. Ketoacidosis b. Cirrhosis c. Hypoglycemic episodes d. All of the above
    5. A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next? a. Serum calcium b. TSH c. Electrolytes d. Urine specific gravity
    6. The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective? a. “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”

b. “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.” c. “My optometrist checks my eyes.” d. “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”

b. “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.” c. “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.” d. “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

  1. A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate? a. “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.” b. “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.” c. “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.” d. All of the above
  2. How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes? a. Once a year b. Every 6 months c. Every 3 months d. Every visit
  3. The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient? a. Overweight b. Mild obesity c. Moderate obesity d. Morbid obesity
  4. Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient? a. Elevated uric acid level b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen c. Decreased urine pH d. Decreased C-reactive protein
  5. Mr. W, 53 years old, is seen in the clinic with concerns about his left foot. He has a 40-year history of type 1 diabetes with “fairly good” control on twice-daily insulin. He denies injury but states that he tripped a few months ago and that his foot is sore when he walks. Physical examination reveals an edematous, erythremic, and warm foot. There is a superficial ulcer on the plantar surface. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Fallen arch b. Arthritis c. Charcot joint d. Sprained ankle
  6. Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr. W’s diagnosis? a. Bone scan b. Computed tomography (CT) scan c. X-ray of the foot d. Culture of the ulcer
  7. A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods? a. Rice b. Carrots c. Spinach d. Potatoes
  1. The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications? a. Low-dose aspirin b. Thiazide diuretics c. Ethambutol d. All of the above
  2. The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient? a. A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s b. Recent exposure to mumps c. Vegetarian diet d. Allergy to iodine
  3. Which of the following is essential for diagnosing thyroid cancer? a. Fine needle aspiration b. Thyroid ultrasound c. CT scan d. Magnetic resonance imaging
  4. Which of the following are common signs of type 2 DM? a. Anorexia b. Recurrent yeast infection c. Weight gain d. Elevated HDL cholesterol
  5. Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia? a. Prednisone b. Metformin c. Synthroid d. Cephalexin
  6. Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus? a. A1C 7.0 on one occasion b. Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions c. Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions d. Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
  7. Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy? a. Insulin b. Metformin c. Glucotrol d. Precose
  8. A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia. There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis? a. Anxiety disorder b. Pheochromocytoma c. Psychosis d. All of the above True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. _T 1. Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM. F 2. Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.

c. Trousseau sign d. Homans sign 10.A patient has undergone tests that indicate a deficiency of the parathyroid hormone secretion. She should be informed of which potential complication? a. Osteoporosis b. Lethargy c. Laryngeal spasms d. Kidney stones 11.A 27-year-old patient with hypothyroidism is referred to the dietitian for dietary consultation. What should nutritional interventions include? a. Frequent small meals high in carbohydrates b. Calorie-restricted meals c. Caffeine-rich beverages d. Fluid restrictions

  1. What instructions should be included in the discharge instructions for a 47-year-old patient with hypothyroidism? a. Taking medication whenever symptoms cause discomfort b. Decreasing fluid and fiber intake c. Consuming foods rich in iron d. Seeing the physician regularly for follow-up care
  2. How should the nurse administer insulin to prevent lipohypertrophy? a. At room temperature b. At body temperature c. Straight from the refrigerator d. After rolling bottle between hands to warm 14.A patient with a history of Graves disease is admitted to the unit with shortness of breath. The nurse notes the patients vital signs: T 103 F, P 160, R 24, BP 160/80. The nurse also notes distended neck veins. What does the patient most likely have? a. Pulmonary embolism b. Hypertensive crisis c. Thyroid storm d. Cushing crisis
  3. What is the master gland of the endocrine system? a. Thyroid b. Parathyroid c. Pancreas d. Pituitary
  4. What information should be obtained from the patient before an iodine-131 test? a. Presence of metal in the body b. Allergy to sulfa drugs c. Status of possible pregnancy d. Use of prescription drugs for hypertension
  5. The patient being treated for hypothyroidism should be instructed to eat well-balanced meals including intake of iodine. Which of the following foods contains iodine? a. Eggs b. Pork c. White bread d. Skinless chicken

18.The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving calcium gluconate for treatment hypoparathyroid of tetany. Which assessment would indicate an adverse reaction to the drug? a. Increase in heart rate b. Flushing of face and neck c. Drop in blood pressure d. Urticaria

  1. The adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoids. The most important is cortisol. What is it involved in? (Select all that apply.) a. Glucose metabolism b. Releasing androgens and estrogens c. Providing extra reserve energy during stress d. Decreasing the level of potassium in the blood stream e. Increasing retention of sodium in the blood stream
  2. Which diagnostic test for diabetes mellitus provides a measure of glucose levels for the previous 8 to 12 weeks? a. Fasting blood sugar (FBS) b. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGT) c. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) d. Postprandial glucose test (PPBG)
  3. Which test will furnish immediate feedback for a newly diagnosed diabetic who is not yet under control? a. Fasting blood sugar (FBS) b. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1c) c. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) d. Clinitest
  4. The patient is a 20-year-old college student who has type 1 diabetes and normally walks each evening as part of an exercise regimen. The patient plans to enroll in a swimming class. Which adjustment should be made based on this information? a. Time the morning insulin injection so that the peak action will occur during swimming class. b. Delete normal walks on swimming class days. c. Delay the meal before the swimming class until the session is over. d.Monitor glucose level before, during, and after swimming to determine the need for alterations in food or insulin.
  5. What is a long-term complication of diabetes mellitus? a. Diverticulitis b. Renal failure c. Hypothyroidism d. Hyperglycemia
  6. In diabetes insipidus, a deficiency of which hormone causes clinical manifestations? a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) c. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) d. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  7. What should the nurse caution a type I diabetic about excessive exercise? a. It can increase the need for insulin and may result in hyperglycemia. b. It can decrease the need for insulin and may result in hypoglycemia. c. It can increase muscle bulk and may result in malabsorption of insulin. d. It can decrease metabolic demand and may result in metabolic acidosis.
  1. What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate increased secretion of insulin? a. Control by releasing hormones b. Control by tropic hormones c. Negative feedback control d. Hypothalamus/hypophysis coordination
  2. What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders? a. Malignant neoplasm b. Infection c. Congenital defect d. Benign tumor
  3. Choose the statement that applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus. a. Onset often occurs during childhood. b. Relative insufficiency of insulin or insulin resistance develops. c. It can be treated by diet, weight control and exercise, or oral hypoglycemics. d. Complications rarely occur.
  4. Why does polyuria develop with diabetes mellitus? a. Increased thirst and hypoglycemia b. Ketoacidosis c. Osmotic pressure due to glucose d. Diabetic nephropathy
  5. What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Excess insulin in the body b. Loss of glucose in the urine c. Failure of the kidney to excrete sufficient acids d. Increased catabolism of fats and proteins
  6. What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Skipping a meal b. Anorexia c. Serious infection d. Insulin overdose
  7. Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop? a. Strenuous exercise b. Missing an insulin dose c. Eating excessively large meals d. Sedentary lifestyle
  8. Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic? a. Deep, rapid respirations b. Flushed dry skin and mucosa c. Thirst and oliguria d. Staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion
  9. Which of the following are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis in an unconscious person? a. Pale moist skin b. Thirst and poor skin turgor c. Deep rapid respirations and fruity breath odor d. Tremors and strong rapid pulse
  1. Immediate treatment for insulin shock may include: a. administration of bicarbonates. b. consumption of fruit juice or candy. c. induced vomiting. d. consumption of large amounts of water.
  2. What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Toxic effects of excessive insulin b. Excessive glucose in the blood c. Metabolic acidosis d. Lack of glucose in brain cells
  3. Which of the following does NOT usually develop as a complication of diabetes? a. Osteoporosis b. Nephropathy c. Impotence d. Peripheral neuropathy
  4. How do many oral hypoglycemic drugs act? a. To replace insulin in patients with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) b. To transport glucose into body cells c. To prevent gluconeogenesis d. To stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin
  5. Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as: a. cataracts. b. macular degeneration. c. myopia. d. strabismus.
  6. Which of the following applies to diabetic macro-angiography?
  7. It affects the small arteries and arterioles. 2. It is related to elevated serum lipids.
  8. It leads to increased risk of myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular disease.
  9. It frequently causes damage to the kidneys.
  10. Why is amputation frequently a necessity in diabetics? a. Necrosis and gangrene in the feet and legs b. Lack of glucose to the cells in the feet and legs c. Severe dehydration in the tissues d. Elevated blood glucose increasing blood viscosity
  11. A type of diabetes that may develop during pregnancy and disappear after delivery is called: a. temporary maternal diabetes. b. fetal diabetes. c. acute developmental diabetes. d. gestational diabetes.
  12. Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently? a. Type 1 diabetic patients b. Type 2 diabetic patients c. Patients with a poor stress response d. Patients with a regular exercise and meal plan
  13. Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes Addisons disease? a. Increased glucocorticoids b. Decreased glucocorticoids
  1. Which of the following is an effect of Addisons disease? a. Elevated blood glucose levels b. High blood pressure c. Low serum potassium levels d. Poor stress response
  2. What is the most common cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus? a. Increased glucose production in the liver b. Destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction c. Increased resistance of body cells to insulin action d. Chronic obesity
  3. Why does glucosuria occur in diabetics? a. Excess ketoacids displace glucose into the filtrate. b. Excess water in the filtrate draws more glucose into the urine. c. The amount of glucose in the filtrate exceeds the renal tubule transport limit. d. Sufficient insulin is not available for glucose reabsorption.
  4. Which of the following are common early signs of a pituitary adenoma? 1. Persistent headaches
  5. Hemianopia
  6. Hypertension
  7. Papilledema
  8. Which of the following does NOT apply to inappropriate ADH syndrome? a. The cause is excess ADH secretion. b. Severe hyponatremia results. c. Excessive sodium is retained. d. Fluid retention increases.
  9. What is/are the effect(s) of thyrotoxic crisis? a. Hyperthermia and heart failure b. Hypotension and hypoglycemia c. Toxic goiter and hypometabolism d. Decreased stress response
  10. Which of the following conditions may precipitate or exacerbate hyperglycemia? a. Hypothyroidism b. Cushings disease c. Addisons disease d. Growth hormone deficit
  11. Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression? a. Graves disease b. Acromegaly c. Cushings disease d. Diabetes insipidus
  12. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC) more frequently develops in patients with: a. type 1 diabetes. b. type 2 diabetes. c. Graves disease. d. hyperparathyroidism.
  13. Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock? 1. If conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar.
  1. If unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%).
  2. Treat immediately with insulin.
  3. Give large quantity of clear fluids for shock.
  4. All these tissues use glucose without the aid of insulin EXCEPT: a. liver. b. digestive system. c. exercising skeletal muscle. d. brain.
  5. Differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes include which of the following? a. Type 1 diabetes weight gain is common, and type 2 weight loss often occurs. b. Type 1 diabetes leads to fewer complications than does type 2 diabetes. c. Type 1 diabetes may be controlled by adjusting dietary intake and exercise, but type 2 diabetes requires insulin replacement. d. Type 1 diabetes occurs more frequently in children and adolescents, and type 2 diabetes occurs more often in adults.
  6. Complications of diabetes mellitus include: a. peripheral neuropathy. b. frequent infections. c. cataracts. d. A, B, and C.
  7. Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism? a. A malignant tumor in the parathyroid glands b. End-stage renal failure c. Osteoporosis d. Radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area 43. Dwarfism is caused by: a. excessive levels of somatotropin (GH). b. a deficit of somatotropin (GH). c. excessive levels of insulin. d. excessive levels of parathyroid hormone.
  8. Which of the following results from a deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? a. Inappropriate ADH syndrome b. Gigantism c. Diabetes insipidus d. Myxedema
  9. Goiters occur more frequently in persons living in the: a. Great Lakes or mountainous regions. b. southwest United States. c. temperate regions. d. areas bordering the oceans.
  10. Which of the following is caused by Graves disease? a. Hypermetabolism b. Decreased size of thyroid gland c. Bradycardia and hypothermia d. Decreased blood levels of T3, T4, and TSH
  11. Goiters may be caused by: a. hypothyroid conditions only. b. either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions.
  1. 90 minutes
  2. 120 minutes 6.A client diagnosed with an embolic stroke is not a candidate for tPA. The nurse realizes that the client might be eligible for which of the following forms of treatment?
  3. Carotid stenting
  4. Antiarrhythmic medication
  5. Intravenous fluid therapy
  6. Carotid endarterectomy 7.A client, being tested for a stroke, is not a candidate for tPA. Which of the following would be contraindicated for the use of tPA? (Select all that apply.)
  7. Minor ischemic stroke within 30 days
  8. Glucose level 120 mg/dL
  9. Blood pressure 190/ mmHg 4. Lumbar puncture 2 days ago 5. Stroke onset 5 hours ago
  10. INR 1.
  11. A patient with a temporary loss of motor function is diagnosed with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). What should the nurse include when assisting in the teaching about this health problem? a. You had a small hemorrhage in your brain. b. Your brain was temporarily deprived of oxygen. c. The neurons in your brain are tangled, so messages get mixed up. d. You have a vessel that is occluded, blocking the blood supply to your brain.
    1. The nurse is assisting with teaching a patient who has had a transient ischemic attack (TIA). On which understanding should the nurse base teaching? a. TIAs are not serious, and the patient should have no further problems. b. A TIA is predictive that the patient will have a heart attack within 1 year. c. A TIA is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. d. A TIA is a forewarning that the patient is at risk for a cerebrovascular accident (stroke).
    2. The nurse is planning care for a client with right-sided weakness and aphasia from a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which area of the brain should the nurse realize was affected in this client? a. Medulla b. Occipital lobe c. Lef t hemisphere d. Right hemisphere
    3. A patient with a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) has left-sided flaccidity and is unable to speak but seems to understand everything the nurse says. Which term should the nurse use to document the patients communication impairment? a. Sensory aphasia b. Motor dysphagia c. Expressive aphasia d. Receptive dysphagia
    4. The nurse is documenting care provided to a patient with left-sided flaccidity caused by a stroke. Which term should the nurse use to document this patients motor status? a. Ipsilateral paraplegia b. Ipsilateral hemiparesis c. Contralateral

hemiplegia

  1. A patient is experiencing bilateral hemiparesis, dysphasia, visual changes, and altered level of consciousness, ataxia, and dysphagia. Which artery was most likely affected in this patients stroke? a. Carotid b. Middle cerebral c. Posterior cerebral d. Vertebrobasilar/cerebellar
  2. The patient is diagnosed with a cerebral vascular accident that has the slowest rate of recovery and the highest probability of causing extensive neurological deficits. For which type of stroke should the nurse plan care for this patient? a. Thrombotic stroke b. Cerebral aneurysm c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) d. Reversible ischemic neurological deficit (RIND) 15.A patient enters the emergency department with right-sided weakness and vision changes. What assessment finding should be communicated to the registered nurse (RN) or HCP immediately? a. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL b. Blood pressure 148/92 mm Hg c. Onset of symptoms occurred 90 minutes ago d. History of transient ischemic attack (TIA) 3 months ago
  3. The nurse is reviewing teaching provided to a patient with transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which statement indicates that further teaching is required? a. The risk factors and symptoms of a TIA are just like those of a stroke. b. I need to stop smoking to help lower my chances of this happening again. c. My risk for Alzheimers disease is increased now, so Ill have to stop driving. d. I recognize how important it is to take my anti-hypertension medications regularly.
  4. A patient began experiencing manifestations of a stroke at 0800 hours. By which time should thrombolytic medications be provided to reverse stroke symptoms? a. 0900 hours b. 1250 hours c. 1400 hours d. 1660 hours
  5. A patient is diagnosed with a stroke that occurred at 12 noon the previous day. When should the nurse plan to begin bedside physical therapy with this patient? a. After 5 days b. Within 2 to 3 days c. By 12 noon on the current day d. At least one week after the occurrence
  6. The nurse is planning care for a patient with an intracerebral hemorrhage. What should be identified as a goal for this patient? a. Maintain blood pressure below 120/80 mm Hg b. Resume activities of daily living as soon as possible c. Expect to experience transient numbness and tingling d. Receive thrombolytic medication therapy within an hour
  7. Which group would most benefit from statins? a. Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL b. Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease c. Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%

d. Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)

  1. If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be? a. Peptic ulcer b. Hiatal hernia c. Costochondritis d. Pericarditis
  2. Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause? a. Serum calcium b. Electrocardiogram (ECG) c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test d. Complete blood cell count
  3. A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered: a. Stage 2 hypertension b. Hypertensive c. Normal in healthy older adults d. Acceptable if the patient has DM
  4. Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension (HTN) include: a. Maintaining a body mass index of 17 b. Restricting dietary sodium to 2 grams per day c. Engaging in exercise or physical activity for 90 minutes a day d. Limiting beer intake to 24 ounces per day
  5. Mary has hypertension and previously had a stroke. Which hypertensive drug would you order for her? a. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor b. Calcium channel blocker c. Angiotensin II receptor blocker d. Beta blocker
  6. Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective? a. Greater than 30 b. Greater than 40 c. Greater than 50 d. Greater than 60
  7. You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome? a. Her waist is 36 inches. b. Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL. c. Her BP is 128/84. d. Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.
  8. Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours? a. Stable angina b. Unstable angina c. Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina) d. Probably not angina but hiatal hernia