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10 Solved Questions in Genetics - Exam 4 | BIOLOGY 206, Exams of Genetics

University of Missouri - Kansas City (UMKC)Genetics

Material Type: Exam; Class: Genetics; Subject: Biology; University: University of Missouri-Kansas City; Term: Spring 2016;

Typology: Exams

2015/2016

Uploaded on 05/10/2016

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Version A
Student name:
Version A
S16 Genetics Exam 3
THERE ARE 25 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON THIS EXAM. YOU ARE
RESPONSIBLE FOR CONFIRMING THIS ONCE THE EXAM BEGINS. NOTIFY THE
INSTRUCTOR IMMEDIATELY FOR A REPLACEMENT EXAM IF YOUR EXAM HAS
FEWER THAN 25 QUESTIONS.
Important instructions (failure to follow instructions may result in loss of points)-
1. No notes, books, calculators, cell phones, or any electronic devices. All papers etc. must
be put away, backpacks must be left in front or rear of exam room. TURN OFF all cell
phones. DO NOT OPEN exam until instructed to do it.
2. i)Write your name clearly on the front of this exam book.
ii) Put your name in the order (Last First) and ID number (at least 5 digits) on scantron
sheets and fill in corresponding bubbles. Use extra zeroes if needed.
3. Write Version Letter (A, B, or C) on top of scantron sheet!
and also fill in Q50 on the scantron with the exam version you’re using.
4. You may fill in your scantron before the exam starts. The exam will start at 2:00 PM and
finish at 2:50 PM. Exams turned in after this time will result in loss of points.
5. Do NOT wait until the last minute to fill in name and answers on Scantron sheets.
6. Choose the best answer, use no. 2 pencil only
7. No questions will be answered after 2:40 PM.
8. Keep your scantron sheet covered as much as possible.
9. You will need a photo ID to submit your exam paper & scantron at the end of the exam
period, have these available.
10. If you believe other students are cheating, notify instructor immediately and discreetly
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Download 10 Solved Questions in Genetics - Exam 4 | BIOLOGY 206 and more Exams Genetics in PDF only on Docsity!

Student name:

Version A

S16 Genetics Exam 3 THERE ARE 25 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON THIS EXAM. YOU ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR CONFIRMING THIS ONCE THE EXAM BEGINS. NOTIFY THE INSTRUCTOR IMMEDIATELY FOR A REPLACEMENT EXAM IF YOUR EXAM HAS FEWER THAN 25 QUESTIONS. Important instructions (failure to follow instructions may result in loss of points)-

  1. No notes, books, calculators, cell phones, or any electronic devices. All papers etc. must be put away, backpacks must be left in front or rear of exam room. TURN OFF all cell phones. DO NOT OPEN exam until instructed to do it.
  2. i)Write your name clearly on the front of this exam book. ii) Put your name in the order (Last First) and ID number (at least 5 digits) on scantron sheets and fill in corresponding bubbles. Use extra zeroes if needed.
  3. Write Version Letter (A, B, or C) on top of scantron sheet! and also fill in Q50 on the scantron with the exam version you’re using.
  4. You may fill in your scantron before the exam starts. The exam will start at 2:00 PM and finish at 2:50 PM. Exams turned in after this time will result in loss of points.
  5. Do NOT wait until the last minute to fill in name and answers on Scantron sheets.
  6. Choose the best answer, use no. 2 pencil only
  7. No questions will be answered after 2:40 PM.
  8. Keep your scantron sheet covered as much as possible.
  9. You will need a photo ID to submit your exam paper & scantron at the end of the exam period, have these available.
  10. If you believe other students are cheating, notify instructor immediately and discreetly
  1. A small (one base pair) insertion in the middle of the coding region of a gene will cause a: A) synonymous mutation. B) silent mutation. C) nonsense mutation. D) missense mutation. E) frameshift mutation.
  2. You are characterizing a mutation in one of the histidine biosynthetic genes ( hisD ) of E. coli. You use Western and Northern blotting to measure the amounts of protein and mRNA, respectively, in the mutant. You find that there is no detectable hisD mRNA OR HisD protein in the mutant. The most likely cause of this is A. Missense mutation B. Nonsense mutation C. Frameshift mutation D. A regulatory region mutation E. A transposon insertion in the coding region
  3. The fluctuation test of Luria and Delbruck showed that: A) a selecting agent can affect mutation rate in E. coli. B) mutations arise spontaneously before exposure to the selecting agent. C) mutations in E. coli occur at a relatively high frequency. D) the mutation rate in E. coli fluctuates greatly from one generation to the next. E) the T1 phage can act as a mutagen as well as a selecting agent in E. coli. Answer: B
  4. Intercalating agents cause A) transpositions B) silent mutations. C) nonsense mutations. D) missense mutations. E) frameshift mutations.
  5. Fragile X syndrome is caused by: A) exposure to high doses of 5-bromouracil. B) exposure to high doses of free radicals. C) an inherited microdeletion. D) spontaneous depurination. E) expansion of trinucleotide sequences.
  1. An individual with the sex chromosome constitution XXY will be a: A. Fertile male B. Fertile female C. Sterile male D. Sterile female E. Hermaphrodite
  2. In an animal bearing the heterozygous inversion ABCDE[]FGHI / ABGF[]EDCHI, in one meiocyte, a crossover occurred between the D and E loci and another crossover occurred between the F and G loci. The two crossovers involved the same two chromatids. What will be the proportion of abnormal meiotic products from that meiosis? ( Note: [*] = centromere.) A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 100% E. It depends on the distance between D and E and between F and G
  3. An individual afflicted with Down’s Syndrome caused by a Robertsonian translocation will have what number of chromosomes? A. 45 B. 46 C. 47 D. 43 E. 44
  4. Which of the following chromosomal aberrations can result in ‘unmasking’ of recessive alleles, resulting in their expression? A. deletions B. duplications C. inversions D. translocations E. None of the above
  5. In a human population, the genotype frequencies at one locus are 0.5 AA, 0.4 Aa, and 0.1 aa. The frequency of the A allele is: change numbers A) 0.20. B) 0.32. C) 0.50. D) 0.70. E) 0.90.
  1. The genetic frequencies of two separate populations are: AA Aa aa Population 1 .36 .48. Population 2 .25 .50. Population 3 .55 .10. Which of these populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) Population 1 is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, but populations 2 and 3 are not. B) Population 2 is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, but populations 1 and 3 are not. C) Population 3 is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, but populations 1 and 2 are not. D) Populations 1 and 2 are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, but population 3 is not. E) None of the populations is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
  2. Genetic drift will; A. Have the greatest effect on allele frequencies in large populations B. Always lead to fixation of the dominant alleles C. Increase genetic variability in a population D. Have the greatest effect on allele frequencies in small populations E. None of the above
  3. In a population with two alleles (A & a), inbreeding leads to: A. Increased homozygosity and increased heterozygosity B. Decreased homozygosity and increased heterozygosity C. Increased homozygosity and decreased heterozygosity D. Increased homozygosity of the A allele only E. Increased heterozygosity only
  4. In a population containing two alleles (A and a), which of the following processes will invariably cause both alleles to be maintained? A. Selection against heterozygotes B. Directional selection C. Balanced polymorphism D. Genetic drift E. None of the above
  5. One reason for the persistence of deleterious genetic disease polymorphisms in the population is: A. The disease allele always confers a selective advantage B. Its elimination by selection is counterbalanced by regeneration of the disease polymorphism by (new) mutations C. The normal/wild type alleles are always selected against D. Genetic drift adds new mutations E. All of the above